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Maternal and Child Health Nursing Exam (2026/2027) – Complete Questions & Answers | Comprehensive Certification & Final Exam Review

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This document provides a comprehensive Maternal and Child Health Nursing examination for the 2026/2027 academic year, featuring complete questions and correct answers. It covers reproductive health and family planning, normal and high-risk antepartum care, labor and delivery management, postpartum care and complications, newborn assessment and immediate care, neonatal intensive care nursing, pediatric growth and development, health screening and promotion, acute and chronic pediatric illness management, pediatric pharmacology and dosage calculations, pediatric emergency and trauma care, and legal and ethical issues. Designed for RN and advanced practice nursing exam preparation, this resource aligns with certification and course final exam formats.

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Maternal and Child Health Nursing Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Questions & Answers

Maternal and Child Health Nursing Comprehensive Examination | Core Domains: Reproductive Health & Family
Planning, Normal and High-Risk Antepartum Care, Labor & Delivery Management, Postpartum Care &
Complications, Newborn Assessment & Immediate Care, Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing, Pediatric Growth &
Development (Birth to Adolescence), Pediatric Health Screening & Promotion, Acute & Chronic Pediatric Illness
Management, Pediatric Pharmacology & Dosage Calculation, Pediatric Emergency & Trauma Care, and
Legal/Ethical Issues in Maternal-Child Nursing | RN & Advanced Practice Nursing Focus | Comprehensive
Certification and Course Final Exam Format



Exam Structure



The Maternal and Child Health Nursing comprehensive examination for the 2026/2027 academic and licensure cycle
is a 100-question, multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply examination designed to evaluate integrated knowledge
and clinical judgment across the maternity and pediatric continuum.


Introduction



This complete Maternal and Child Health Nursing Exam study guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares nursing
candidates and practitioners to deliver safe, evidence-based, and family-centered care. The content emphasizes
physiological adaptations, critical complications, developmental milestones, and age-appropriate interventions for
patients from conception through adolescence.


Answer Format



All correct answers and key clinical guidelines must be presented in bold and green, followed by detailed rationales
citing current evidence-based standards of care (e.g., ACOG, AAP, NANN), nursing pharmacology principles, and
pathophysiological foundations.



Maternal and Child Health Nursing Questions (1–100)



1. A client at 8 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which
statement by the nurse is most appropriate?


A) “This will likely resolve by the end of the first trimester.”



B) “You should avoid all fluids until vomiting stops.”

, C) “Take ibuprofen for abdominal discomfort.”



D) “This is a sign of preeclampsia.”



A) “This will likely resolve by the end of the first trimester.”



Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP) typically peaks at 9–10 weeks and resolves by 14–16 weeks in most
women. It is mediated by elevated hCG and estrogen levels. Fluids should be encouraged in small, frequent
amounts. Ibuprofen is contraindicated in pregnancy; preeclampsia occurs after 20 weeks.



2. A newborn is born at 39 weeks gestation with Apgar scores of 8 at 1 minute and 9 at 5
minutes. What is the priority nursing action?


A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula



B) Place under radiant warmer



C) Initiate skin-to-skin contact with mother



D) Obtain blood glucose level



C) Initiate skin-to-skin contact with mother



For a stable newborn (Apgar ≥7), immediate skin-to-skin contact promotes thermoregulation, bonding,
breastfeeding initiation, and stabilization of vital signs per AAP and WHO recommendations. Radiant warmers are
reserved for unstable infants requiring resuscitation.



3. A postpartum client reports severe perineal pain 24 hours after vaginal delivery with a
second-degree laceration. What is the priority intervention?


A) Administer a stool softener



B) Apply a cold pack to the perineum

, C) Encourage Kegel exercises



D) Assess for signs of infection



B) Apply a cold pack to the perineum



Cold therapy in the first 24–48 hours reduces edema, inflammation, and pain after perineal trauma. After 48 hours,
warm sitz baths are more appropriate. Infection assessment is important but not the immediate priority for acute
pain.



4. A 5-year-old child is admitted with suspected epiglottitis. Which action should the nurse
avoid?


A) Keeping the child calm and in a position of comfort



B) Preparing for possible intubation or tracheostomy



C) Obtaining a throat culture



D) Monitoring oxygen saturation



C) Obtaining a throat culture



In epiglottitis, any attempt to visualize or swab the throat can trigger complete airway obstruction due to the
inflamed, fragile epiglottis. The child should remain calm and undisturbed; airway management must be prepared in
a controlled setting (e.g., operating room) before examination.



5. A pregnant client at 29 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg and 2+
proteinuria. What condition does this suggest?


A) Gestational hypertension



B) Preeclampsia

, C) Chronic hypertension



D) Eclampsia



B) Preeclampsia



Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (≥140/90 mm Hg) after 20 weeks of gestation with proteinuria
(≥300 mg/24 hr or 1+ on dipstick) or other end-organ dysfunction (e.g., thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes,
renal insufficiency). Eclampsia includes seizures.



6. A newborn exhibits jitteriness, poor feeding, and a high-pitched cry. Blood glucose is 32
mg/dL. What is the priority action?


A) Administer IV dextrose



B) Offer glucose water by bottle



C) Encourage breastfeeding



D) Monitor for hypocalcemia



A) Administer IV dextrose



Neonatal hypoglycemia (<45 mg/dL in first 24 hours) with symptoms requires immediate IV dextrose (e.g., D10W at
2–4 mL/kg) to prevent neurological damage. Oral interventions are insufficient in symptomatic infants. IV access
and rapid correction are critical per AAP guidelines.



7. A 7-month-old infant is scheduled to receive routine immunizations. Which vaccine is
contraindicated if the infant has a history of anaphylaxis to neomycin?


A) DTaP



B) Hepatitis B

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