CERTIFIED EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT
PLANNER EXAM QUESTION AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The primary purpose of a Hazard Vulnerability Analysis (HVA) is to:
A. Identify required funding sources
B. Evaluate risks and prioritize hazards
C. Determine staff vacation schedules
D. Assess public opinion
Rationale: HVAs identify and prioritize hazards based on likelihood and
impact.
2. Which of the following is the BEST definition of mitigation?
A. Reacting to an emergency
B. Restoring services after an incident
C. Reducing or eliminating risk before an incident occurs
D. Training responders
Rationale: Mitigation actions reduce or eliminate risk prior to disasters.
3. The purpose of an emergency operations plan (EOP) is to:
A. Replace local laws
B. Provide a coordinated framework for response
C. Define employee job descriptions
D. Document annual budgets
Rationale: EOPs guide coordinated response actions.
4. Who has the PRIMARY authority for declaring a state of emergency at the
local level?
, A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
B. State governor
C. Local chief elected official
D. Fire chief
Rationale: Local elected officials typically declare local emergencies.
5. The Incident Command System (ICS) is designed to:
A. Centralize all authority to one person
B. Increase paperwork
C. Provide a scalable structure for command, control, and coordination
D. Replace normal management
Rationale: ICS is scalable and structured for emergency response.
6. Continuity of Operations Planning (COOP) focuses on:
A. Public communications
B. Maintaining essential functions during disruptions
C. Volunteer management
D. Hazard mapping
Rationale: COOP ensures continuity of essential functions.
7. A mutual aid agreement is used to:
A. Fund hazard mitigation
B. Certify emergency managers
C. Share resources between jurisdictions
D. Conduct exercises
Rationale: Mutual aid allows resource sharing in emergencies.
8. Which risk assessment step identifies the frequency and severity of
hazards?
A. Plan implementation
B. Emergency response
C. Risk analysis
D. Recovery operations
Rationale: Risk analysis assesses likelihood and severity.
, 9. The Stafford Act is MOST associated with:
A. Occupational safety
B. Federal disaster assistance
C. Zoning laws
D. Environmental protection
Rationale: The Stafford Act authorizes federal disaster aid.
10.National Incident Management System (NIMS) provides:
A. State-only procedures
B. Nation-wide standard approach to incident management
C. Financial assistance rules
D. Hazard mitigation grants only
Rationale: NIMS standardizes how incidents are managed nationally.
11.The purpose of an After Action Report (AAR) is to:
A. Punish responders
B. Fund hazard mitigation
C. Evaluate performance and improve plans
D. Draft new laws
Rationale: AARs analyze performance and identify improvements.
12.Which of the following is a key element of emergency preparedness?
A. Resource depletion
B. Training and exercises
C. Media censorship
D. Building destruction
Rationale: Preparedness includes training and exercises.
13.The term “all-hazards approach” means:
A. Planning only for natural disasters
B. Planning for a wide range of emergencies
C. Ignoring human-caused events
D. Planning only for terrorist threats
Rationale: All-hazards includes natural and human-made incidents.
PLANNER EXAM QUESTION AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The primary purpose of a Hazard Vulnerability Analysis (HVA) is to:
A. Identify required funding sources
B. Evaluate risks and prioritize hazards
C. Determine staff vacation schedules
D. Assess public opinion
Rationale: HVAs identify and prioritize hazards based on likelihood and
impact.
2. Which of the following is the BEST definition of mitigation?
A. Reacting to an emergency
B. Restoring services after an incident
C. Reducing or eliminating risk before an incident occurs
D. Training responders
Rationale: Mitigation actions reduce or eliminate risk prior to disasters.
3. The purpose of an emergency operations plan (EOP) is to:
A. Replace local laws
B. Provide a coordinated framework for response
C. Define employee job descriptions
D. Document annual budgets
Rationale: EOPs guide coordinated response actions.
4. Who has the PRIMARY authority for declaring a state of emergency at the
local level?
, A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
B. State governor
C. Local chief elected official
D. Fire chief
Rationale: Local elected officials typically declare local emergencies.
5. The Incident Command System (ICS) is designed to:
A. Centralize all authority to one person
B. Increase paperwork
C. Provide a scalable structure for command, control, and coordination
D. Replace normal management
Rationale: ICS is scalable and structured for emergency response.
6. Continuity of Operations Planning (COOP) focuses on:
A. Public communications
B. Maintaining essential functions during disruptions
C. Volunteer management
D. Hazard mapping
Rationale: COOP ensures continuity of essential functions.
7. A mutual aid agreement is used to:
A. Fund hazard mitigation
B. Certify emergency managers
C. Share resources between jurisdictions
D. Conduct exercises
Rationale: Mutual aid allows resource sharing in emergencies.
8. Which risk assessment step identifies the frequency and severity of
hazards?
A. Plan implementation
B. Emergency response
C. Risk analysis
D. Recovery operations
Rationale: Risk analysis assesses likelihood and severity.
, 9. The Stafford Act is MOST associated with:
A. Occupational safety
B. Federal disaster assistance
C. Zoning laws
D. Environmental protection
Rationale: The Stafford Act authorizes federal disaster aid.
10.National Incident Management System (NIMS) provides:
A. State-only procedures
B. Nation-wide standard approach to incident management
C. Financial assistance rules
D. Hazard mitigation grants only
Rationale: NIMS standardizes how incidents are managed nationally.
11.The purpose of an After Action Report (AAR) is to:
A. Punish responders
B. Fund hazard mitigation
C. Evaluate performance and improve plans
D. Draft new laws
Rationale: AARs analyze performance and identify improvements.
12.Which of the following is a key element of emergency preparedness?
A. Resource depletion
B. Training and exercises
C. Media censorship
D. Building destruction
Rationale: Preparedness includes training and exercises.
13.The term “all-hazards approach” means:
A. Planning only for natural disasters
B. Planning for a wide range of emergencies
C. Ignoring human-caused events
D. Planning only for terrorist threats
Rationale: All-hazards includes natural and human-made incidents.
