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HESI FUNDAMENTALS Practice Exam
With Verified Solutions
Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia graves
who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
A. chocolate pudding
B. graham crackers
C. sugar free gelatin
D. apple slices - correct-answer -A. chocolate pudding
(The client with myasthenia graves is at high risk for altered nutrition because of
fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid,
such as pudding (A) are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and
provide calories and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D)
require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than pudding.)
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style
modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been
effective?
A. "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my
cholesterol."
B. "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
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D. "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase." - correct-
answer -C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
(Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per
week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective
in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4
to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated
(B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and
smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to
decrease rather than increase.)
An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin long-term weight
loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive
aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management
classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most
important for
the nurse to provide?
A. "Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your
planned exercise program."
B. "Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level,
making you want to eat more."
C. "Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend
money on a stress management class."
D. "Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of
accomplishment and motivation." - correct-answer -A. "Be sure to have a
complete physical examination before your planned exercise program."
(The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous
level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a
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heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less
priority than (A). )
The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client
administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the
inhaler?
A. Immediately after exhalation.
B. During the inhalation
C. At the end of three inhalers
D. Immediately after inhalation - correct-answer -B. During the inhalation.
(The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of
inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the
mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to
allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as
started in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C).)
An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 mL of D5W, infusing at a rate of 30
mcg/min, is prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should
the nurse set the infusion pump? - correct-answer -180
The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO.
Zaroxoltn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to
administer? - correct-answer -1 1/2 tablets
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The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is
Lasix 20 mg/2ml. How many millileters should the nurse administer? - correct-
answer -1.5 mL
Heparin 20,000 units in 500 mL D5W at 50 mL/hour has been infusing for 5.5
hours. How much heparin has the client received? - correct-answer -11,000 units
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition
(TPN) via a central line at 54 mL/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse
notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available.
What immediate action should the nurse take?
A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate.
B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 mL/hour.
D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the HCP. - correct-answer -C. Infuse
10% dextrose and water at 54 mL/hour.
(TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust decreased levels of
glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep
the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available.
The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose
(A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason
to obtain a stat blood-glucose level (D) and the HCP cannot do anything about this
situation.)
HESI FUNDAMENTALS Practice Exam
With Verified Solutions
Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia graves
who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
A. chocolate pudding
B. graham crackers
C. sugar free gelatin
D. apple slices - correct-answer -A. chocolate pudding
(The client with myasthenia graves is at high risk for altered nutrition because of
fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid,
such as pudding (A) are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and
provide calories and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D)
require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than pudding.)
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style
modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been
effective?
A. "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my
cholesterol."
B. "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
,2|Page
D. "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase." - correct-
answer -C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
(Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per
week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective
in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4
to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated
(B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and
smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to
decrease rather than increase.)
An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin long-term weight
loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive
aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management
classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most
important for
the nurse to provide?
A. "Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your
planned exercise program."
B. "Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level,
making you want to eat more."
C. "Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend
money on a stress management class."
D. "Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of
accomplishment and motivation." - correct-answer -A. "Be sure to have a
complete physical examination before your planned exercise program."
(The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous
level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a
,3|Page
heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less
priority than (A). )
The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client
administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the
inhaler?
A. Immediately after exhalation.
B. During the inhalation
C. At the end of three inhalers
D. Immediately after inhalation - correct-answer -B. During the inhalation.
(The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of
inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the
mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to
allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as
started in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C).)
An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 mL of D5W, infusing at a rate of 30
mcg/min, is prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should
the nurse set the infusion pump? - correct-answer -180
The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO.
Zaroxoltn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to
administer? - correct-answer -1 1/2 tablets
, 4|Page
The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is
Lasix 20 mg/2ml. How many millileters should the nurse administer? - correct-
answer -1.5 mL
Heparin 20,000 units in 500 mL D5W at 50 mL/hour has been infusing for 5.5
hours. How much heparin has the client received? - correct-answer -11,000 units
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition
(TPN) via a central line at 54 mL/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse
notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available.
What immediate action should the nurse take?
A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate.
B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 mL/hour.
D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the HCP. - correct-answer -C. Infuse
10% dextrose and water at 54 mL/hour.
(TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust decreased levels of
glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep
the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available.
The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose
(A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason
to obtain a stat blood-glucose level (D) and the HCP cannot do anything about this
situation.)
