zuku review navle EXAM 2026
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS GRADED
A+
A. Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
--> type II ostertagiasis: ostertagia ostertagi
In September in the Southeastern U.S., a two-year-old Angus heifer died the previous
night. She had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, and diarrhea.
Several other younger cows in this herd also look unthrifty and have diarrhea. The cattle
are vaccinated yearly and dewormed twice a year with pour-on moxidectin.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated
nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone appearance).
What is the most correct action to take next?
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
B - Vaccinate against Clostridium perfringens C and D with a multivalent bacterin
C - Medicate for liver flukes
D - Provide free-choice monensin and thiamine-supplemented feed
E - Provide loose trace mineral salt to the entire group
D. Chronic external blood loss
--> (could also be zinc or copper tox)
What is the most common cause of iron deficiency?
A - Copper toxicosis
B - Dietary zinc deficiency
C - Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
D - Chronic external blood loss
E - Renal disease
C - Clarithromycin and rifampin (rifampin with either erythromycin, azithromycin or
clarithromycin )
A four-month-old filly is presented with a four-day history of lethargy, heavy breathing,
cough and decreased appetite.
On lung auscultation asymmetrically-distributed crackles and wheezes are audible. Some
areas have no breath sounds and a dull resonance on thoracic percussion. A lateral chest
radiograph shows consolidated nodular lung lesions and mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
Pneumonia due to Rhodococcus equi infection is confirmed based on culture and
polymerase chain reaction results on a transtracheal wash.
Which one of following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Procaine penicillin G and gentamicin
B - Chloramphenicol and aminophylline
C - Clarithromycin and rifampin
D - Vancomycin and atropine (if bronchospasm is observed)
,E - Tilmicosin
E. camelids
(birds and reptiles, nucleated ellipsoid RBC)
Which species has ellipsoid erythrocytes that lack central pallor?
A - Chinchillas
B - Psittacines
C - Ferrets
D - Reptiles
E - Camelids
A - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against
"pedunculated giblet disease" in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible
disease has decreased markedly.
How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best
serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
A - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
B - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence
C - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
D - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
E - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
(need sensitive test with: rare diseases, early in disease, disease is highly lethal/missing a
disease would be bad)
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
B - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
D - Common disease; infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
B - Acinar cell atrophy (EPI)
An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain,
chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.
Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal =
5.7-45.2 µg/L).
What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?
A - Inflammatory bowel disease
B - Acinar cell atrophy
C - Pituitary dwarfism
D - Acute pancreatitis
E - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B - Laminitis (endrocrine causes, septic causes, suport limb, trauma)
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary
conditions in horses?
A - Contagious equine metritis
B - Laminitis
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
,D - Colic
E - Cystic endometriosis
C - Histomoniasis
( bulls eye lesion, depression/diarrhea, clostridium infection causes necrotic enteritis)
A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Numerous dead birds are
noted.
Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Some
birds are emaciated.
Necropsy shows a marked thickening of the cecal wall, cecal ulcerations, and yellowish,
caseous exudate distending the cecal lumen (cecal core). A typical liver looks like the image
below.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Avian spirochetosis
B - Necrotic enteritis
C - Histomoniasis
D - Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys
E - Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile, adult horses are at risk for
enterocolitits when exposed to erythromycin)
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin, the mare is at risk of developing
enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
B - Clostridium novyi
C - Rhodococcus equi
D - Escherichia coli
E - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
C - Liver and muscle
(Leakage enzyme)
Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Spleen and adrenals
C - Liver and muscle
D - Heart and kidneys
E - Red blood cells and brain
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
(LMN damage forelimbs and UMN damage in the hind limbs, opposite of schiff-sherington
syndrome T3-L3. both would be UMN in all limbs if cranial cervical)
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds. All four limbs have
proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
C - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
, E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
One description of a typical heart sound is "lub-dub."
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the "lub")?
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
B - Atrial contraction
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
D - End of rapid ventricular filling period
E - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
A - Facial nerve (unilateral facial paralysis)
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and
lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She
is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Facial nerve
B - Trigeminal nerve
C - Left side inner ear
D - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
E - Left side medulla, motor tract
C - Panosteitis
(shifting leg lameness)
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of
lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports
that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right
foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Panosteitis
D - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
E - Hypertrophic osteopathy
B - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
(growing pigs most commonly)
A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high
mortality, primarily in young pigs under six months of age.
Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and
reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy
nasal and oral discharge.
On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut
surface, as shown in the image below.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS GRADED
A+
A. Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
--> type II ostertagiasis: ostertagia ostertagi
In September in the Southeastern U.S., a two-year-old Angus heifer died the previous
night. She had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, and diarrhea.
Several other younger cows in this herd also look unthrifty and have diarrhea. The cattle
are vaccinated yearly and dewormed twice a year with pour-on moxidectin.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated
nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone appearance).
What is the most correct action to take next?
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
B - Vaccinate against Clostridium perfringens C and D with a multivalent bacterin
C - Medicate for liver flukes
D - Provide free-choice monensin and thiamine-supplemented feed
E - Provide loose trace mineral salt to the entire group
D. Chronic external blood loss
--> (could also be zinc or copper tox)
What is the most common cause of iron deficiency?
A - Copper toxicosis
B - Dietary zinc deficiency
C - Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
D - Chronic external blood loss
E - Renal disease
C - Clarithromycin and rifampin (rifampin with either erythromycin, azithromycin or
clarithromycin )
A four-month-old filly is presented with a four-day history of lethargy, heavy breathing,
cough and decreased appetite.
On lung auscultation asymmetrically-distributed crackles and wheezes are audible. Some
areas have no breath sounds and a dull resonance on thoracic percussion. A lateral chest
radiograph shows consolidated nodular lung lesions and mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
Pneumonia due to Rhodococcus equi infection is confirmed based on culture and
polymerase chain reaction results on a transtracheal wash.
Which one of following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Procaine penicillin G and gentamicin
B - Chloramphenicol and aminophylline
C - Clarithromycin and rifampin
D - Vancomycin and atropine (if bronchospasm is observed)
,E - Tilmicosin
E. camelids
(birds and reptiles, nucleated ellipsoid RBC)
Which species has ellipsoid erythrocytes that lack central pallor?
A - Chinchillas
B - Psittacines
C - Ferrets
D - Reptiles
E - Camelids
A - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against
"pedunculated giblet disease" in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible
disease has decreased markedly.
How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best
serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
A - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
B - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence
C - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
D - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
E - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
(need sensitive test with: rare diseases, early in disease, disease is highly lethal/missing a
disease would be bad)
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
B - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
D - Common disease; infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
B - Acinar cell atrophy (EPI)
An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain,
chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.
Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal =
5.7-45.2 µg/L).
What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?
A - Inflammatory bowel disease
B - Acinar cell atrophy
C - Pituitary dwarfism
D - Acute pancreatitis
E - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B - Laminitis (endrocrine causes, septic causes, suport limb, trauma)
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary
conditions in horses?
A - Contagious equine metritis
B - Laminitis
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
,D - Colic
E - Cystic endometriosis
C - Histomoniasis
( bulls eye lesion, depression/diarrhea, clostridium infection causes necrotic enteritis)
A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Numerous dead birds are
noted.
Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Some
birds are emaciated.
Necropsy shows a marked thickening of the cecal wall, cecal ulcerations, and yellowish,
caseous exudate distending the cecal lumen (cecal core). A typical liver looks like the image
below.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Avian spirochetosis
B - Necrotic enteritis
C - Histomoniasis
D - Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys
E - Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile, adult horses are at risk for
enterocolitits when exposed to erythromycin)
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin, the mare is at risk of developing
enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
B - Clostridium novyi
C - Rhodococcus equi
D - Escherichia coli
E - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
C - Liver and muscle
(Leakage enzyme)
Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Spleen and adrenals
C - Liver and muscle
D - Heart and kidneys
E - Red blood cells and brain
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
(LMN damage forelimbs and UMN damage in the hind limbs, opposite of schiff-sherington
syndrome T3-L3. both would be UMN in all limbs if cranial cervical)
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds. All four limbs have
proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
C - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
, E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
One description of a typical heart sound is "lub-dub."
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the "lub")?
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
B - Atrial contraction
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
D - End of rapid ventricular filling period
E - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
A - Facial nerve (unilateral facial paralysis)
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and
lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She
is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Facial nerve
B - Trigeminal nerve
C - Left side inner ear
D - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
E - Left side medulla, motor tract
C - Panosteitis
(shifting leg lameness)
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of
lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports
that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right
foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Panosteitis
D - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
E - Hypertrophic osteopathy
B - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
(growing pigs most commonly)
A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high
mortality, primarily in young pigs under six months of age.
Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and
reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy
nasal and oral discharge.
On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut
surface, as shown in the image below.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
