Fitzgerald diabetes quiz; Complete answered latest 2025-26: NUR644 - Long Island University, Brooklyn.

Fitzgerald diabetes quiz; Complete answered latest 2025-26: NUR644 - Long Island University, Brooklyn. 1. Signs of hypoglycemia include all of the following except: A. Sweating. B. Bradycardia. C. Confusion. D. Weakness. 2. The thiazolidinediones should not be used concomitantly with a(n): A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. B. Nitrate. C. Calcium channel antagonist. D. Beta-adrenergic antagonist. 3. Consequences of hyperinsulinemia include all of the following except: A. Altered vessel membrane permeability. B. Less response to angiotensin II. C. Enhanced renal tubule reabsorption of sodium. D. Endothelial dysfunction. 4. The mechanism of action of sulfonylureas is as a(n): A. Product that enhances insulin release. B. Regulator of insulin receptor site activity. C. Agent that can reduce hepatic glucose production. D. Facilitator of renal glucose excretion. 5. Which of the following is consistent with the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? A. Fasting plasma glucose=100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L) to 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L) B. Hemoglobin A1C =6.5% C. Plasma glucose=140 to 199 mg/dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol/L) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test D. Random plasma glucose =125 mg/dL without classic diabetes mellitus symptoms 6. SGLT2 inhibitors exert their clinical effect by: A. Increasing glucose utilization in the muscle. B. Reducing insulin resistance in the skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. C. Delaying carbohydrate absorption. D. Increasing glucose excretion in the urine. 7. Delayed gastric emptying is noted with the use of: A. Exenatide (Byetta®). B. Pioglitazone (Actos®). C. Acarbose (Precose®). D. Glyburide (Micronase®). 8. In a healthy person, basal insulin accounts for what percentage of the body's total daily physiologic insulin secretion? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% 9. Which of the following best describes a component of sitagliptin’s (Januvia®) mechanism of action? A. Agent that increases hepatic glucose utilization B. Increases insulin release by slowing inactivation of incretin hormones C. Facilitator of renal glucose excretion D. Enhancer of insulin receptor site activity 10. Using metformin in a person with advanced renal impairment potentially increases the risk of: A. Hypokalemia. B. Renal failure. C. Poor glycemic control. D. Lactic acidosis 11. For a patient who is newly-diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and A1C >10%, intensive insulin therapy should be considered to reverse the effects of glucose toxicity. The recommended duration of intensive insulin therapy is: A. 48 hours. B. 7 days. C. 2 to 3 weeks. D. At least 3 months. 12. The presence of microalbuminuria is typically an indication of: A. Prolonged, low level hypoglycemia. B. Altered renal function. C. Hepatotoxicity. D. Urinary tract infection. 13. The NP is evaluating a 36-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus currently being treated with metformin. She also has a history of recurrent UTIs. Her BMI is 38 kg/m2 and her A1C today is 7.6%. She expresses a desire to lose weight. In considering adding a new antihyperglycemic medication to her regimen, the most appropriate choice would be a: A. SGLT2 inhibitor. B. GLP-1 agonist. C. TZD. D. Sulfonylurea. 14. The NP is evaluating a 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus that is being treated with metformin monotherapy. Today, his A1C is 7.3%. The patient expresses concern about hypoglycemia. In considering adding a new antihyperglycemic agent to her regimen, the NP considers which of the following to be the least appropriate option? A. SGLT2 inhibitor B. Sulfonylurea C. DPP-4 inhibitor D. GLP-1 agonist 15. Mrs. B. is a 46-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who is receiving a single 10- unit daily dose of long-acting insulin glargine. Her fasting blood glucose has ranged between 170 to 180 mg/dL (9.4–10.0 mmol/L). Which of the following best describes the next step in her therapy? A. Continue on current glargine dose B. Decrease glargine dose by 2 units C. Increase glargine dose by 2 units D. Increase glargine dose by 4 units 16. The NP is called to evaluate a 45-year-old man who is experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. He is alert with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL (3.33 mmol/L). The most appropriate course of action is: A. Observe patient and re-check blood sugar in 15 minutes. B. Administer 1 tube of 15 g glucose orally and re-check blood sugar in 15 minutes. C. Administer 2 tubes of 15 g glucose orally and re-check blood sugar in 30 minutes. D. Immediately initiate intravenous glucose 50% until blood sugar stabilizes at >100 mg/dL (5.56 mmol/L). 17. In counseling a patient on the use of short-acting insulin to better manage post- prandial hyperglycemia, the NP advises: A. It should be administered just prior to the largest meal of the day. B. It should be administered 30 minutes following each meal. C. It should be administered 10 minutes prior to each meal D. If used correctly, short-acting insulin will replace the need for basal insulin. 18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of basal insulin? A. Can often be dosed once daily B. Should not be combined with GLP-1 agonists C. Primarily improve fasting plasma glucose D. Generally have a lower concentration peak than rapid-acting insulin 19. Unless contraindicated, an additional therapy to be routinely prescribed for the patient with type 2 diabetes includes all of the following except: A. Statin. B. ACE inhibitor. C. Daily low-dose aspirin. D. Fibrate. 20. According to the American Diabetes Association Standards of Diabetes Care, the use of sliding-scale insulin therapy to treat hyperglycemia is: A. Discouraged for individuals admitted to the hospital and in the outpatient setting. B. Appropriate for inpatient and outpatient management. C. A viable option for ICU patients but less so in the general medical ward. D. Only useful for patients who are not taking another antihyperglycemic medication.