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BSN HESI Med-Surg Practice Test Bank (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED THIS YEAR
400 Questions & Answers
Cardiovascular System
1. A patient with chest pain has an ST-elevation MI. What should the nurse do first?
Answer: Assess airway, breathing, and circulation and notify the provider.
2. A patient on a beta-blocker reports dizziness. What assessment is most important?
Answer: Check blood pressure and heart rate.
3. A BNP level is elevated in a patient with dyspnea. This most likely indicates:
Answer: Heart failure.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with acute pulmonary edema?
Answer: Place in high-Fowler’s position and administer oxygen.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for:
Answer: Stroke due to emboli.
6. A patient reports calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot (Homan’s sign). This suggests:
Answer: Deep vein thrombosis.
7. The best indicator of fluid status in heart failure is:
Answer: Daily weights.
8. A patient with decreased peripheral pulses and cool extremities may have:
Answer: Peripheral arterial disease.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a patient on warfarin?
Answer: INR.
10. A patient with myocardial infarction should receive aspirin because it:
Answer: Inhibits platelet aggregation.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
Respiratory System
11. A patient with COPD has a PaO2 of 55 mmHg. What is the priority?
Answer: Administer low-flow oxygen carefully.
12. A sudden onset of shortness of breath after surgery could indicate:
Answer: Pulmonary embolism.
13. A positive TB skin test means:
Answer: Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis; further evaluation needed.
14. A patient with pneumonia should have which nursing intervention?
Answer: Assess lung sounds and oxygen saturation frequently.
15. Incentive spirometry is used to:
Answer: Prevent atelectasis.
16. A patient with asthma uses a peak flow meter; lower readings indicate:
Answer: Bronchoconstriction.
17. A chest tube drainage of 200 mL in 1 hour is:
Answer: Within expected limits initially post-thoracotomy.
18. For a patient with sleep apnea, what is a priority intervention?
Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) at night.
19. A patient reports sharp pleuritic chest pain that increases with inspiration. This may be:
Answer: Pleurisy.
20. Theophylline toxicity presents with:
Answer: Tachycardia and nausea.
Endocrine System
21. A type 1 diabetic is shaky and confused. What should the nurse do?
Answer: Check blood glucose and administer fast-acting carbohydrate.
22. A hospitalized patient with Cushing’s disease will likely have:
Answer: Hyperglycemia and fluid retention.
23. A patient with Addison’s disease is at risk for:
Answer: Adrenal crisis during stress.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
24. A patient on levothyroxine reports heat intolerance and weight loss. What should be
assessed?
Answer: Signs of hyperthyroidism.
25. A patient with DKA should receive:
Answer: IV fluids and insulin.
26. A patient with hypothyroidism may exhibit:
Answer: Fatigue and weight gain.
27. Hyperparathyroidism causes:
Answer: Hypercalcemia.
28. A patient with Graves’ disease may present with:
Answer: Exophthalmos.
29. A patient receiving insulin should eat:
Answer: At the onset of insulin action.
30. A patient using a glucagon emergency kit is likely experiencing:
Answer: Severe hypoglycemia with decreased consciousness.
Gastrointestinal System
31. A patient with peptic ulcer disease should avoid:
Answer: NSAIDs.
32. A positive Murphy’s sign indicates:
Answer: Cholecystitis.
33. A patient with ulcerative colitis will likely have:
Answer: Frequent bloody diarrhea.
34. What diet is appropriate for diverticulitis?
Answer: Clear liquids during acute flare; high-fiber when stable.
35. A patient with pancreatitis may experience:
Answer: Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back.
36. A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose because it:
Answer: Reduces ammonia levels.
37. A patient with a nasogastric tube should have placement verified by:
Answer: X-ray.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
38. A common sign of appendicitis is:
Answer: Right lower quadrant pain.
39. A patient with cirrhosis and ascites needs:
Answer: Sodium restriction and diuretics.
40. A stool guaiac test detects:
Answer: Occult blood.
Renal & Urinary System
41. A patient with AKI has decreased urine output. What is the priority?
Answer: Monitor intake/output and report oliguria.
42. A patient on a loop diuretic should be monitored for:
Answer: Hypokalemia.
43. A patient with glomerulonephritis may have:
Answer: Proteinuria and hematuria.
44. A patient with nephrotic syndrome needs:
Answer: Daily weights and edematous assessment.
45. A patient with hyperkalemia requires:
Answer: Cardiac monitoring and potassium-lowering therapy.
46. A patient with BPH may develop:
Answer: Urinary retention.
47. A clean-catch urine sample is used to diagnose:
Answer: Urinary tract infection.
48. A patient with cystitis may report:
Answer: Dysuria and urgency.
49. A patient with chronic kidney disease should limit:
Answer: Potassium and phosphorus.
50. A bladder scan showing 300 mL post-void indicates:
Answer: Incomplete bladder emptying.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
BSN HESI Med-Surg Practice Test Bank (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED THIS YEAR
400 Questions & Answers
Cardiovascular System
1. A patient with chest pain has an ST-elevation MI. What should the nurse do first?
Answer: Assess airway, breathing, and circulation and notify the provider.
2. A patient on a beta-blocker reports dizziness. What assessment is most important?
Answer: Check blood pressure and heart rate.
3. A BNP level is elevated in a patient with dyspnea. This most likely indicates:
Answer: Heart failure.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with acute pulmonary edema?
Answer: Place in high-Fowler’s position and administer oxygen.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for:
Answer: Stroke due to emboli.
6. A patient reports calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot (Homan’s sign). This suggests:
Answer: Deep vein thrombosis.
7. The best indicator of fluid status in heart failure is:
Answer: Daily weights.
8. A patient with decreased peripheral pulses and cool extremities may have:
Answer: Peripheral arterial disease.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a patient on warfarin?
Answer: INR.
10. A patient with myocardial infarction should receive aspirin because it:
Answer: Inhibits platelet aggregation.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
Respiratory System
11. A patient with COPD has a PaO2 of 55 mmHg. What is the priority?
Answer: Administer low-flow oxygen carefully.
12. A sudden onset of shortness of breath after surgery could indicate:
Answer: Pulmonary embolism.
13. A positive TB skin test means:
Answer: Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis; further evaluation needed.
14. A patient with pneumonia should have which nursing intervention?
Answer: Assess lung sounds and oxygen saturation frequently.
15. Incentive spirometry is used to:
Answer: Prevent atelectasis.
16. A patient with asthma uses a peak flow meter; lower readings indicate:
Answer: Bronchoconstriction.
17. A chest tube drainage of 200 mL in 1 hour is:
Answer: Within expected limits initially post-thoracotomy.
18. For a patient with sleep apnea, what is a priority intervention?
Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) at night.
19. A patient reports sharp pleuritic chest pain that increases with inspiration. This may be:
Answer: Pleurisy.
20. Theophylline toxicity presents with:
Answer: Tachycardia and nausea.
Endocrine System
21. A type 1 diabetic is shaky and confused. What should the nurse do?
Answer: Check blood glucose and administer fast-acting carbohydrate.
22. A hospitalized patient with Cushing’s disease will likely have:
Answer: Hyperglycemia and fluid retention.
23. A patient with Addison’s disease is at risk for:
Answer: Adrenal crisis during stress.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
24. A patient on levothyroxine reports heat intolerance and weight loss. What should be
assessed?
Answer: Signs of hyperthyroidism.
25. A patient with DKA should receive:
Answer: IV fluids and insulin.
26. A patient with hypothyroidism may exhibit:
Answer: Fatigue and weight gain.
27. Hyperparathyroidism causes:
Answer: Hypercalcemia.
28. A patient with Graves’ disease may present with:
Answer: Exophthalmos.
29. A patient receiving insulin should eat:
Answer: At the onset of insulin action.
30. A patient using a glucagon emergency kit is likely experiencing:
Answer: Severe hypoglycemia with decreased consciousness.
Gastrointestinal System
31. A patient with peptic ulcer disease should avoid:
Answer: NSAIDs.
32. A positive Murphy’s sign indicates:
Answer: Cholecystitis.
33. A patient with ulcerative colitis will likely have:
Answer: Frequent bloody diarrhea.
34. What diet is appropriate for diverticulitis?
Answer: Clear liquids during acute flare; high-fiber when stable.
35. A patient with pancreatitis may experience:
Answer: Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back.
36. A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose because it:
Answer: Reduces ammonia levels.
37. A patient with a nasogastric tube should have placement verified by:
Answer: X-ray.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
38. A common sign of appendicitis is:
Answer: Right lower quadrant pain.
39. A patient with cirrhosis and ascites needs:
Answer: Sodium restriction and diuretics.
40. A stool guaiac test detects:
Answer: Occult blood.
Renal & Urinary System
41. A patient with AKI has decreased urine output. What is the priority?
Answer: Monitor intake/output and report oliguria.
42. A patient on a loop diuretic should be monitored for:
Answer: Hypokalemia.
43. A patient with glomerulonephritis may have:
Answer: Proteinuria and hematuria.
44. A patient with nephrotic syndrome needs:
Answer: Daily weights and edematous assessment.
45. A patient with hyperkalemia requires:
Answer: Cardiac monitoring and potassium-lowering therapy.
46. A patient with BPH may develop:
Answer: Urinary retention.
47. A clean-catch urine sample is used to diagnose:
Answer: Urinary tract infection.
48. A patient with cystitis may report:
Answer: Dysuria and urgency.
49. A patient with chronic kidney disease should limit:
Answer: Potassium and phosphorus.
50. A bladder scan showing 300 mL post-void indicates:
Answer: Incomplete bladder emptying.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
