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NURS 6531 Practice Exam (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) |
GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED THIS YEAR
1–10: Foundations of Adult Care
1. A 45-year-old patient reports fatigue and pale skin. Laboratory studies reveal low
hemoglobin and hematocrit. The most appropriate initial nursing action is:
A) Administer iron supplements
B) Assess for sources of bleeding
C) Provide dietary counseling
D) Begin blood transfusion
Answer: B
Explanation: Anemia requires assessment to identify the underlying cause before
initiating treatment.
2. Which symptom is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
A) Hypertension
B) Periorbital edema
C) Bradycardia
D) Jaundice
Answer: B
Explanation: Edema results from protein loss in nephrotic syndrome.
3. A patient with chronic renal failure often develops anemia because the kidneys fail to
produce:
A) Vitamin D
B) Erythropoietin
C) Renin
D) Insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production.
4. Which of the following best describes a pathologic fracture?
A) Fracture from a high-impact fall
B) Fracture through diseased bone
C) Stress fracture from repetitive use
D) Greenstick fracture in children
Answer: B
Explanation: Pathologic fractures occur in weakened bone.
5. Cystic fibrosis is primarily characterized by:
A) Autoimmune inflammation
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
B) Excessive mucus production
C) Muscle weakness
D) Neurologic degeneration
Answer: B
Explanation: Thick secretions are central to CF pathology.
6. Heat stroke differs from heat exhaustion because patients with heat stroke:
A) Have moist, cool skin
B) Maintain normal mental status
C) Lack sweating despite high core temperature
D) Have hypotension only
Answer: C
Explanation: Heat stroke suppresses sweating and causes severe hyperthermia.
7. The first prenatal blood test that assesses neural tube defects is:
A) CBC
B) AFP (alfa-fetoprotein)
C) Glucose tolerance
D) STD panel
Answer: B
Explanation: AFP screens for neural tube abnormalities.
8. A major consideration in the management of acute viral bronchitis is:
A) Immediate antibiotic therapy
B) Supportive care
C) Surgical intervention
D) High-dose corticosteroids
Answer: B
Explanation: Viral infections do not require antibiotics; supportive care is key.
9. Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is best established through:
A) Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
B) Peripheral blood smear only
C) Radiography
D) Serum electrolyte panel
Answer: A
Explanation: Bone marrow biopsy identifies malignant cells definitively.
10. Which of the following is a clinical feature of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Diarrhea
B) Resting tremor
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B
Explanation: Resting tremor is a hallmark of Parkinson’s disease.
11–20: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary
11. A patient with chest pain radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis
most likely has:
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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A) Gastroesophageal reflux
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Panic attack
D) Pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation: Classic signs of acute MI include chest pain, radiation, and diaphoresis.
12. The preferred initial test for suspected pulmonary embolism is:
A) Chest X-ray
B) D-dimer
C) Pulmonary function test
D) EKG
Answer: B
Explanation: D-dimer helps rule out PE; imaging confirms diagnosis if positive.
13. The most common symptom of heart failure is:
A) Dyspnea on exertion
B) Bradycardia
C) Fever
D) Jaundice
Answer: A
Explanation: Dyspnea, especially on exertion, is characteristic of heart failure.
14. A patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes should have first-line therapy with:
A) Beta-blocker alone
B) ACE inhibitor
C) Calcium channel blocker only
D) Diuretic only
Answer: B
Explanation: ACE inhibitors provide renal protection and blood pressure control.
15. Statins are primarily used to:
A) Lower blood glucose
B) Reduce cholesterol
C) Increase blood pressure
D) Prevent infection
Answer: B
Explanation: Statins lower LDL cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk.
16. Shortness of breath and orthopnea in a patient with a history of MI suggests:
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Asthma
D) Bronchitis
Answer: B
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion and orthopnea.
17. The most reliable indicator of right-sided heart failure is:
A) Jugular venous distension
B) Dyspnea
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Hypertension
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Answer: A
Explanation: JVD indicates elevated right atrial pressure.
18. In COPD management, long-term oxygen therapy is indicated when:
A) SpO2 < 88%
B) SpO2 > 95%
C) Dyspnea occurs only with exertion
D) PaCO2 is normal
Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen therapy improves survival in chronic hypoxemia.
19. The preferred bronchodilator for acute asthma exacerbation is:
A) Long-acting beta agonist
B) Short-acting beta agonist
C) Inhaled corticosteroid
D) Oral antihistamine
Answer: B
Explanation: Short-acting beta agonists provide rapid relief.
20. A patient presents with sudden onset dyspnea, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain. The
nurse suspects:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Bronchitis
D) Pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation: Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic pain are typical PE symptoms.
21–30: Renal and Genitourinary
21. A 60-year-old male presents with difficulty starting urination and weak stream. Most
likely diagnosis:
A) UTI
B) BPH
C) Prostate cancer
D) Nephrolithiasis
Answer: B
Explanation: BPH commonly causes urinary obstruction in older men.
22. The gold standard diagnostic test for nephrolithiasis is:
A) Ultrasound
B) Non-contrast CT scan
C) MRI
D) X-ray
Answer: B
Explanation: Non-contrast CT is highly sensitive for kidney stones.
23. A patient with flank pain, fever, and dysuria likely has:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Cystitis
2026 2027 GRADED A+
NURS 6531 Practice Exam (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) |
GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED THIS YEAR
1–10: Foundations of Adult Care
1. A 45-year-old patient reports fatigue and pale skin. Laboratory studies reveal low
hemoglobin and hematocrit. The most appropriate initial nursing action is:
A) Administer iron supplements
B) Assess for sources of bleeding
C) Provide dietary counseling
D) Begin blood transfusion
Answer: B
Explanation: Anemia requires assessment to identify the underlying cause before
initiating treatment.
2. Which symptom is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
A) Hypertension
B) Periorbital edema
C) Bradycardia
D) Jaundice
Answer: B
Explanation: Edema results from protein loss in nephrotic syndrome.
3. A patient with chronic renal failure often develops anemia because the kidneys fail to
produce:
A) Vitamin D
B) Erythropoietin
C) Renin
D) Insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production.
4. Which of the following best describes a pathologic fracture?
A) Fracture from a high-impact fall
B) Fracture through diseased bone
C) Stress fracture from repetitive use
D) Greenstick fracture in children
Answer: B
Explanation: Pathologic fractures occur in weakened bone.
5. Cystic fibrosis is primarily characterized by:
A) Autoimmune inflammation
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
B) Excessive mucus production
C) Muscle weakness
D) Neurologic degeneration
Answer: B
Explanation: Thick secretions are central to CF pathology.
6. Heat stroke differs from heat exhaustion because patients with heat stroke:
A) Have moist, cool skin
B) Maintain normal mental status
C) Lack sweating despite high core temperature
D) Have hypotension only
Answer: C
Explanation: Heat stroke suppresses sweating and causes severe hyperthermia.
7. The first prenatal blood test that assesses neural tube defects is:
A) CBC
B) AFP (alfa-fetoprotein)
C) Glucose tolerance
D) STD panel
Answer: B
Explanation: AFP screens for neural tube abnormalities.
8. A major consideration in the management of acute viral bronchitis is:
A) Immediate antibiotic therapy
B) Supportive care
C) Surgical intervention
D) High-dose corticosteroids
Answer: B
Explanation: Viral infections do not require antibiotics; supportive care is key.
9. Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is best established through:
A) Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
B) Peripheral blood smear only
C) Radiography
D) Serum electrolyte panel
Answer: A
Explanation: Bone marrow biopsy identifies malignant cells definitively.
10. Which of the following is a clinical feature of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Diarrhea
B) Resting tremor
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B
Explanation: Resting tremor is a hallmark of Parkinson’s disease.
11–20: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary
11. A patient with chest pain radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis
most likely has:
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
A) Gastroesophageal reflux
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Panic attack
D) Pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation: Classic signs of acute MI include chest pain, radiation, and diaphoresis.
12. The preferred initial test for suspected pulmonary embolism is:
A) Chest X-ray
B) D-dimer
C) Pulmonary function test
D) EKG
Answer: B
Explanation: D-dimer helps rule out PE; imaging confirms diagnosis if positive.
13. The most common symptom of heart failure is:
A) Dyspnea on exertion
B) Bradycardia
C) Fever
D) Jaundice
Answer: A
Explanation: Dyspnea, especially on exertion, is characteristic of heart failure.
14. A patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes should have first-line therapy with:
A) Beta-blocker alone
B) ACE inhibitor
C) Calcium channel blocker only
D) Diuretic only
Answer: B
Explanation: ACE inhibitors provide renal protection and blood pressure control.
15. Statins are primarily used to:
A) Lower blood glucose
B) Reduce cholesterol
C) Increase blood pressure
D) Prevent infection
Answer: B
Explanation: Statins lower LDL cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk.
16. Shortness of breath and orthopnea in a patient with a history of MI suggests:
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Asthma
D) Bronchitis
Answer: B
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion and orthopnea.
17. The most reliable indicator of right-sided heart failure is:
A) Jugular venous distension
B) Dyspnea
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Hypertension
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
Answer: A
Explanation: JVD indicates elevated right atrial pressure.
18. In COPD management, long-term oxygen therapy is indicated when:
A) SpO2 < 88%
B) SpO2 > 95%
C) Dyspnea occurs only with exertion
D) PaCO2 is normal
Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen therapy improves survival in chronic hypoxemia.
19. The preferred bronchodilator for acute asthma exacerbation is:
A) Long-acting beta agonist
B) Short-acting beta agonist
C) Inhaled corticosteroid
D) Oral antihistamine
Answer: B
Explanation: Short-acting beta agonists provide rapid relief.
20. A patient presents with sudden onset dyspnea, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain. The
nurse suspects:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Bronchitis
D) Pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation: Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic pain are typical PE symptoms.
21–30: Renal and Genitourinary
21. A 60-year-old male presents with difficulty starting urination and weak stream. Most
likely diagnosis:
A) UTI
B) BPH
C) Prostate cancer
D) Nephrolithiasis
Answer: B
Explanation: BPH commonly causes urinary obstruction in older men.
22. The gold standard diagnostic test for nephrolithiasis is:
A) Ultrasound
B) Non-contrast CT scan
C) MRI
D) X-ray
Answer: B
Explanation: Non-contrast CT is highly sensitive for kidney stones.
23. A patient with flank pain, fever, and dysuria likely has:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Cystitis
2026 2027 GRADED A+
