SHS 250 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
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1. The primary goal of a Safety and Health Management System
(SHMS) is to
A. Increase productivity only
B. Reduce insurance costs
C. Prevent workplace injuries and illnesses
D. Eliminate all workplace hazards
Answer: C
Rationale: The core purpose of SHMS is prevention of injuries and
occupational illnesses.
2. Which OSHA standard applies to general industry?
A. 29 CFR 1910
B. 29 CFR 1926
C. 29 CFR 1904
D. 29 CFR 1915
Answer: A
Rationale: 29 CFR 1910 governs general industry standards.
3. A hazard that can cause harm immediately is classified as
A. Chronic
B. Acute
, C. Biological
D. Ergonomic
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hazards cause immediate injury or illness.
4. The hierarchy of controls ranks which method as most effective?
A. Personal protective equipment
B. Administrative controls
C. Engineering controls
D. Elimination
Answer: D
Rationale: Eliminating the hazard entirely is the most effective
control.
5. Which document communicates chemical hazards to employees?
A. Job Safety Analysis
B. Safety Data Sheet
C. Incident Report
D. Emergency Action Plan
Answer: B
Rationale: SDS provides detailed chemical hazard information.
6. Lockout/tagout procedures are designed to prevent
A. Chemical exposure
B. Falls
C. Unexpected equipment energization
D. Noise exposure
Answer: C
Rationale: LOTO controls hazardous energy during servicing.
,7. Which type of hazard includes bacteria and viruses?
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Mechanical
Answer: C
Rationale: Biological hazards involve living organisms.
8. PPE should be used
A. As the first line of defense
B. Only when hazards are eliminated
C. After engineering and administrative controls
D. Instead of training
Answer: C
Rationale: PPE is the least effective control and used last.
9. An incident that could have caused injury but did not is called a
A. Accident
B. Near miss
C. Hazard
D. Violation
Answer: B
Rationale: Near misses indicate potential safety failures.
10. Ergonomic hazards are most associated with
A. Slips and trips
B. Repetitive motion
C. Chemical burns
D. Electrical shock
, Answer: B
Rationale: Ergonomics focuses on musculoskeletal stressors.
11. Which program is required for workplaces with fire risks?
A. Hazard Communication Plan
B. Emergency Action Plan
C. Respiratory Protection Program
D. Confined Space Program
Answer: B
Rationale: EAP addresses evacuation and emergency response.
12. A Job Safety Analysis primarily focuses on
A. Employee discipline
B. Hazard identification by task
C. Equipment maintenance
D. Regulatory compliance only
Answer: B
Rationale: JSA breaks jobs into steps to identify hazards.
13. OSHA inspections are typically conducted
A. Randomly only
B. After employee requests
C. Based on priority and risk
D. Only after fatalities
Answer: C
Rationale: OSHA prioritizes imminent danger and severe hazards.
14. Which hazard is associated with loud machinery?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Biological
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The primary goal of a Safety and Health Management System
(SHMS) is to
A. Increase productivity only
B. Reduce insurance costs
C. Prevent workplace injuries and illnesses
D. Eliminate all workplace hazards
Answer: C
Rationale: The core purpose of SHMS is prevention of injuries and
occupational illnesses.
2. Which OSHA standard applies to general industry?
A. 29 CFR 1910
B. 29 CFR 1926
C. 29 CFR 1904
D. 29 CFR 1915
Answer: A
Rationale: 29 CFR 1910 governs general industry standards.
3. A hazard that can cause harm immediately is classified as
A. Chronic
B. Acute
, C. Biological
D. Ergonomic
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hazards cause immediate injury or illness.
4. The hierarchy of controls ranks which method as most effective?
A. Personal protective equipment
B. Administrative controls
C. Engineering controls
D. Elimination
Answer: D
Rationale: Eliminating the hazard entirely is the most effective
control.
5. Which document communicates chemical hazards to employees?
A. Job Safety Analysis
B. Safety Data Sheet
C. Incident Report
D. Emergency Action Plan
Answer: B
Rationale: SDS provides detailed chemical hazard information.
6. Lockout/tagout procedures are designed to prevent
A. Chemical exposure
B. Falls
C. Unexpected equipment energization
D. Noise exposure
Answer: C
Rationale: LOTO controls hazardous energy during servicing.
,7. Which type of hazard includes bacteria and viruses?
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Mechanical
Answer: C
Rationale: Biological hazards involve living organisms.
8. PPE should be used
A. As the first line of defense
B. Only when hazards are eliminated
C. After engineering and administrative controls
D. Instead of training
Answer: C
Rationale: PPE is the least effective control and used last.
9. An incident that could have caused injury but did not is called a
A. Accident
B. Near miss
C. Hazard
D. Violation
Answer: B
Rationale: Near misses indicate potential safety failures.
10. Ergonomic hazards are most associated with
A. Slips and trips
B. Repetitive motion
C. Chemical burns
D. Electrical shock
, Answer: B
Rationale: Ergonomics focuses on musculoskeletal stressors.
11. Which program is required for workplaces with fire risks?
A. Hazard Communication Plan
B. Emergency Action Plan
C. Respiratory Protection Program
D. Confined Space Program
Answer: B
Rationale: EAP addresses evacuation and emergency response.
12. A Job Safety Analysis primarily focuses on
A. Employee discipline
B. Hazard identification by task
C. Equipment maintenance
D. Regulatory compliance only
Answer: B
Rationale: JSA breaks jobs into steps to identify hazards.
13. OSHA inspections are typically conducted
A. Randomly only
B. After employee requests
C. Based on priority and risk
D. Only after fatalities
Answer: C
Rationale: OSHA prioritizes imminent danger and severe hazards.
14. Which hazard is associated with loud machinery?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Biological
