WGU D115 OBJECT ASSESSMENT ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM EXAMINATION TEST
2026
◉ In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the
leading known cause? Answer: Intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known
cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
◉ What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? Answer:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation
genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies
and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic
fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
◉ Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a
zygote having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes
and one chromosome with a missing gene? Answer: Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
,affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
◉ How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Answer:
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a
daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the
other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
◉ Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate
among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed
population? Answer: Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
◉ What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases
based on? Answer: Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect
multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
◉ What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. Answer: The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
,◉ What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? Answer: The underlying chronic
illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness
depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
◉ Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite
invasion? Answer: Eosinophils are the body's primary defense
against parasites.
◉ What Phagocytes bacteria? Answer: Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
◉ What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? Answer: Helper
T cells
◉ Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen? Answer:
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
◉ How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is
administered, causing an ABO incompatibility? Answer: The
complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
, ◉ What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic
dermatitis? Answer: An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction
causes atopic dermatitis.
◉ Which four infections are considered fungal infections? Answer:
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
◉ When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab
results can detect infection? Answer: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA
4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may
be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon
after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
◉ What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Answer: Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
◉ Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a
decreased risk for developing colon cancer? Answer: The results of
decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM EXAMINATION TEST
2026
◉ In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the
leading known cause? Answer: Intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known
cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
◉ What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? Answer:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation
genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies
and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic
fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
◉ Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a
zygote having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes
and one chromosome with a missing gene? Answer: Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
,affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
◉ How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Answer:
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a
daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the
other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
◉ Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate
among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed
population? Answer: Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
◉ What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases
based on? Answer: Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect
multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
◉ What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. Answer: The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
,◉ What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? Answer: The underlying chronic
illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness
depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
◉ Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite
invasion? Answer: Eosinophils are the body's primary defense
against parasites.
◉ What Phagocytes bacteria? Answer: Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
◉ What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? Answer: Helper
T cells
◉ Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen? Answer:
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
◉ How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is
administered, causing an ABO incompatibility? Answer: The
complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
, ◉ What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic
dermatitis? Answer: An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction
causes atopic dermatitis.
◉ Which four infections are considered fungal infections? Answer:
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
◉ When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab
results can detect infection? Answer: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA
4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may
be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon
after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
◉ What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Answer: Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
◉ Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a
decreased risk for developing colon cancer? Answer: The results of
decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
