COMPREHENSIVE NURS 753 – THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES
FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST
1. A patient with chronic low back pain is scheduled for ultrasound therapy.
Which patient teaching is most important before the therapy?
A. Expect immediate pain relief after one session.
B. Do not use the treated area for 24 hours.
C. Avoid metal implants in the treatment area.
D. You may feel a mild electric shock during therapy.
Answer: C. Avoid metal implants in the treatment area.
Rationale: Ultrasound therapy can cause heating of metal implants, potentially
damaging surrounding tissues. Patients should avoid placing ultrasound over metal
objects. Immediate pain relief is not guaranteed, and ultrasound is not electrical
stimulation, so shocks are not expected.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer transcutaneous electrical nerve
stimulation (TENS) for a patient with neuropathic pain. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Place electrodes over areas of decreased sensation.
B. Adjust the intensity to patient tolerance.
C. Apply electrodes to the midline of the spine.
D. Avoid skin assessment prior to application.
Answer: B. Adjust the intensity to patient tolerance.
Rationale: TENS should be set according to the patient’s comfort. Electrodes are
placed over the site of pain, not necessarily midline, and skin integrity should
always be assessed to avoid burns or irritation.
,3. A patient reports severe spasticity after a stroke. The provider prescribes
therapeutic modalities to reduce muscle tone. Which modality is most
appropriate?
A. Ice packs
B. Heat packs
C. Continuous ultrasound
D. Low-frequency TENS
Answer: A. Ice packs
Rationale: Cold therapy reduces spasticity by decreasing nerve conduction and
muscle excitability. Heat may increase spasticity in patients with upper motor
neuron lesions.
4. During hydrotherapy for a patient with partial-thickness burns, the nurse
notices the patient becomes dizzy and pale. What is the first nursing action?
A. Increase water temperature.
B. Slow the movement of water.
C. Stop therapy and assess vital signs.
D. Encourage deep breathing and continue therapy.
Answer: C. Stop therapy and assess vital signs.
Rationale: Dizziness and pallor indicate hypotension or vasovagal response.
Therapy should be stopped immediately, and the patient’s condition assessed
before resuming.
5. A patient undergoing interferential current therapy for knee osteoarthritis
asks how it works. What is the best explanation?
A. It produces continuous deep heat to muscles.
B. It delivers low-frequency electrical currents to stimulate nerves and reduce pain.
C. It mechanically stretches joint tissues.
D. It promotes chemical healing of cartilage.
,Answer: B. It delivers low-frequency electrical currents to stimulate nerves and
reduce pain.
Rationale: Interferential therapy uses intersecting low-frequency currents to
stimulate nerve fibers, blocking pain signals (gate control theory).
6. A patient with a pressure ulcer is prescribed negative-pressure wound
therapy (NPWT). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Moderate serosanguinous drainage in the canister
B. Mild discomfort around the dressing
C. Bright red bleeding from the wound
D. Foam dressing partially moist
Answer: C. Bright red bleeding from the wound
Rationale: Bright red bleeding indicates potential hemorrhage, requiring
immediate intervention. NPWT is not intended for actively bleeding wounds.
7. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is using paraffin wax therapy. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. Wax is applied at 50–55°C for 15–20 minutes.
B. Wax must be boiled before each treatment.
C. Wax therapy increases joint stiffness.
D. Wax should be applied over broken skin.
Answer: A. Wax is applied at 50–55°C for 15–20 minutes.
Rationale: Paraffin wax provides therapeutic heat to joints, improving circulation
and reducing stiffness. It should never be applied over open wounds or at unsafe
temperatures.
, 8. During therapeutic exercise, a patient reports sharp pain in the shoulder.
The nurse should:
A. Continue exercises to improve range of motion.
B. Stop the activity and assess the shoulder.
C. Encourage pushing through the pain.
D. Reduce repetitions but maintain intensity.
Answer: B. Stop the activity and assess the shoulder.
Rationale: Sharp pain signals potential injury; continuing exercises could worsen
the condition. Pain beyond mild discomfort requires immediate assessment.
9. A patient receiving ultraviolet (UV) therapy for psoriasis asks about eye
protection. Which instruction is correct?
A. UV therapy does not affect the eyes.
B. Goggles must be worn during exposure.
C. Close your eyes and avoid looking at the light.
D. Use sunglasses after therapy.
Answer: B. Goggles must be worn during exposure.
Rationale: UV radiation can cause eye damage, including cataracts or
photokeratitis. Proper eye protection is mandatory.
10. A patient with a recent ankle sprain asks why cryotherapy is
recommended. What is the best rationale?
A. It increases blood flow to promote healing.
B. It decreases inflammation and pain.
C. It permanently strengthens ligaments.
D. It warms tissues to reduce stiffness.
Answer: B. It decreases inflammation and pain.
Rationale: Cryotherapy reduces swelling, pain, and inflammation by causing
vasoconstriction and slowing metabolic processes in injured tissues.
FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST
1. A patient with chronic low back pain is scheduled for ultrasound therapy.
Which patient teaching is most important before the therapy?
A. Expect immediate pain relief after one session.
B. Do not use the treated area for 24 hours.
C. Avoid metal implants in the treatment area.
D. You may feel a mild electric shock during therapy.
Answer: C. Avoid metal implants in the treatment area.
Rationale: Ultrasound therapy can cause heating of metal implants, potentially
damaging surrounding tissues. Patients should avoid placing ultrasound over metal
objects. Immediate pain relief is not guaranteed, and ultrasound is not electrical
stimulation, so shocks are not expected.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer transcutaneous electrical nerve
stimulation (TENS) for a patient with neuropathic pain. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Place electrodes over areas of decreased sensation.
B. Adjust the intensity to patient tolerance.
C. Apply electrodes to the midline of the spine.
D. Avoid skin assessment prior to application.
Answer: B. Adjust the intensity to patient tolerance.
Rationale: TENS should be set according to the patient’s comfort. Electrodes are
placed over the site of pain, not necessarily midline, and skin integrity should
always be assessed to avoid burns or irritation.
,3. A patient reports severe spasticity after a stroke. The provider prescribes
therapeutic modalities to reduce muscle tone. Which modality is most
appropriate?
A. Ice packs
B. Heat packs
C. Continuous ultrasound
D. Low-frequency TENS
Answer: A. Ice packs
Rationale: Cold therapy reduces spasticity by decreasing nerve conduction and
muscle excitability. Heat may increase spasticity in patients with upper motor
neuron lesions.
4. During hydrotherapy for a patient with partial-thickness burns, the nurse
notices the patient becomes dizzy and pale. What is the first nursing action?
A. Increase water temperature.
B. Slow the movement of water.
C. Stop therapy and assess vital signs.
D. Encourage deep breathing and continue therapy.
Answer: C. Stop therapy and assess vital signs.
Rationale: Dizziness and pallor indicate hypotension or vasovagal response.
Therapy should be stopped immediately, and the patient’s condition assessed
before resuming.
5. A patient undergoing interferential current therapy for knee osteoarthritis
asks how it works. What is the best explanation?
A. It produces continuous deep heat to muscles.
B. It delivers low-frequency electrical currents to stimulate nerves and reduce pain.
C. It mechanically stretches joint tissues.
D. It promotes chemical healing of cartilage.
,Answer: B. It delivers low-frequency electrical currents to stimulate nerves and
reduce pain.
Rationale: Interferential therapy uses intersecting low-frequency currents to
stimulate nerve fibers, blocking pain signals (gate control theory).
6. A patient with a pressure ulcer is prescribed negative-pressure wound
therapy (NPWT). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Moderate serosanguinous drainage in the canister
B. Mild discomfort around the dressing
C. Bright red bleeding from the wound
D. Foam dressing partially moist
Answer: C. Bright red bleeding from the wound
Rationale: Bright red bleeding indicates potential hemorrhage, requiring
immediate intervention. NPWT is not intended for actively bleeding wounds.
7. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is using paraffin wax therapy. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. Wax is applied at 50–55°C for 15–20 minutes.
B. Wax must be boiled before each treatment.
C. Wax therapy increases joint stiffness.
D. Wax should be applied over broken skin.
Answer: A. Wax is applied at 50–55°C for 15–20 minutes.
Rationale: Paraffin wax provides therapeutic heat to joints, improving circulation
and reducing stiffness. It should never be applied over open wounds or at unsafe
temperatures.
, 8. During therapeutic exercise, a patient reports sharp pain in the shoulder.
The nurse should:
A. Continue exercises to improve range of motion.
B. Stop the activity and assess the shoulder.
C. Encourage pushing through the pain.
D. Reduce repetitions but maintain intensity.
Answer: B. Stop the activity and assess the shoulder.
Rationale: Sharp pain signals potential injury; continuing exercises could worsen
the condition. Pain beyond mild discomfort requires immediate assessment.
9. A patient receiving ultraviolet (UV) therapy for psoriasis asks about eye
protection. Which instruction is correct?
A. UV therapy does not affect the eyes.
B. Goggles must be worn during exposure.
C. Close your eyes and avoid looking at the light.
D. Use sunglasses after therapy.
Answer: B. Goggles must be worn during exposure.
Rationale: UV radiation can cause eye damage, including cataracts or
photokeratitis. Proper eye protection is mandatory.
10. A patient with a recent ankle sprain asks why cryotherapy is
recommended. What is the best rationale?
A. It increases blood flow to promote healing.
B. It decreases inflammation and pain.
C. It permanently strengthens ligaments.
D. It warms tissues to reduce stiffness.
Answer: B. It decreases inflammation and pain.
Rationale: Cryotherapy reduces swelling, pain, and inflammation by causing
vasoconstriction and slowing metabolic processes in injured tissues.
