Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2 Questions and
Answers Top Rated A+ 2025
A 55-year-old male client has been admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which risk factor is the most significant in the
development of this client's COPD?
A. The client's father was diagnosed with COPD in his 50s.
B. A close family member contracted tuberculosis last year.
C. The client smokes one to two packs of cigarettes per day.
D. The client has been 40 pounds overweight for 15 years.
- Correct Answer :Answer- C
Rationale- Smoking, considered to be a modifiable risk factor, is the most significant risk factor
for the development of COPD. The exact mechanism of genetic and hereditary implications for
the development of COPD is still under investigation, although exposure to similar predisposing
factors (e.g., smoking or inhaling secondhand smoke) may increase the likelihood of COPD
incidence among family members. Options B and D do not exceed the risks associated with
cigarette smoking in the development of COPD.
Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia
(tic douloureux)?
A. Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties
B. Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin
C. Unilateral facial weakness and paralysis
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Adult Health II Exam 2
D. Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric
shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial V). Option
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Adult Health II Exam 2
A would be characteristic of Ménière syndrome (cranial nerve VIII). Option C would be
characteristic of Bell palsy (cranial nerve VII). Option D would be characteristic of disorders of the
hypoglossal (cranial nerve XII).
A client with chronic asthma is admitted to the PACU complaining of pain at a level of 8 on a 1 to
10 scale, with a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, pulse of 88 beats/min, and respirations of 20
breaths/min. The PACU recovery prescription is "Morphine, 2 to 4 mg IV push, while in recovery
for pain level over 5." Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Give the medication as prescribed to decrease the client's pain.
B. Call the anesthesia provider for a different medication for pain.
C. Use nonpharmacologic techniques before giving the medication.
D. Reassess the pain level in 30 minutes and medicate if it remains elevated.
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- The nurse should call the provider for a different medication because morphine is a
histamine-releasing opioid and should be avoided when the client has asthma. Option A is unsafe
because it puts the client at risk for an asthma exacerbation. Even if the drug were safe for the
client, options C and D both disregard the prescription and the client's need for pain relief in the
immediate postoperative period.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water seal drainage that was inserted 10 days
ago because of a ruptured bullae and pneumothorax. Which finding should the nurse report to
the health care provider before the chest tube is removed?
A. Tidaling of water in water seal chamber
B. Bilateral muffled breath sounds at bases
C. Temperature of 101° F
D. Absence of chest tube drainage for 2 days
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Adult Health II Exam 2
- Correct Answer :Answer- A
Rationale- Tidaling (rising and falling of water with respirations) in the water seal chamber should
be reported to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed to rule out an
unresolved pneumothorax or persistent air leak, which is characteristic of a ruptured bullae
caused by abnormally wide changes in negative intrathoracic pressure. Option B may indicate
hypoventilation from chest tube discomfort and usually improves when the chest tube is
removed. Option C usually indicates an infection, which may not be related to the chest tube.
Option D is an expected finding.
A hospitalized client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous
pump infusion. He begins to cough and produces a moderate amount of white sputum. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds.
B. Turn off the continuous feeding pump.
C. Check placement of the nasogastric tube.
D. Measure the amount of residual feeding. - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- A productive cough may indicate that the feeding has been aspirated. The nurse
should first stop the feeding to prevent further aspiration. Options A, C, and D should all be
performed before restarting the tube feeding if no evidence of aspiration is present and the tube
is in place.
learn hepatitis b, a , c etc - Correct Answer :
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment finding has the
highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
A+ TEST BANK 4
Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2 Questions and
Answers Top Rated A+ 2025
A 55-year-old male client has been admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which risk factor is the most significant in the
development of this client's COPD?
A. The client's father was diagnosed with COPD in his 50s.
B. A close family member contracted tuberculosis last year.
C. The client smokes one to two packs of cigarettes per day.
D. The client has been 40 pounds overweight for 15 years.
- Correct Answer :Answer- C
Rationale- Smoking, considered to be a modifiable risk factor, is the most significant risk factor
for the development of COPD. The exact mechanism of genetic and hereditary implications for
the development of COPD is still under investigation, although exposure to similar predisposing
factors (e.g., smoking or inhaling secondhand smoke) may increase the likelihood of COPD
incidence among family members. Options B and D do not exceed the risks associated with
cigarette smoking in the development of COPD.
Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia
(tic douloureux)?
A. Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties
B. Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin
C. Unilateral facial weakness and paralysis
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Adult Health II Exam 2
D. Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric
shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial V). Option
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Adult Health II Exam 2
A would be characteristic of Ménière syndrome (cranial nerve VIII). Option C would be
characteristic of Bell palsy (cranial nerve VII). Option D would be characteristic of disorders of the
hypoglossal (cranial nerve XII).
A client with chronic asthma is admitted to the PACU complaining of pain at a level of 8 on a 1 to
10 scale, with a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, pulse of 88 beats/min, and respirations of 20
breaths/min. The PACU recovery prescription is "Morphine, 2 to 4 mg IV push, while in recovery
for pain level over 5." Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Give the medication as prescribed to decrease the client's pain.
B. Call the anesthesia provider for a different medication for pain.
C. Use nonpharmacologic techniques before giving the medication.
D. Reassess the pain level in 30 minutes and medicate if it remains elevated.
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- The nurse should call the provider for a different medication because morphine is a
histamine-releasing opioid and should be avoided when the client has asthma. Option A is unsafe
because it puts the client at risk for an asthma exacerbation. Even if the drug were safe for the
client, options C and D both disregard the prescription and the client's need for pain relief in the
immediate postoperative period.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water seal drainage that was inserted 10 days
ago because of a ruptured bullae and pneumothorax. Which finding should the nurse report to
the health care provider before the chest tube is removed?
A. Tidaling of water in water seal chamber
B. Bilateral muffled breath sounds at bases
C. Temperature of 101° F
D. Absence of chest tube drainage for 2 days
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Adult Health II Exam 2
- Correct Answer :Answer- A
Rationale- Tidaling (rising and falling of water with respirations) in the water seal chamber should
be reported to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed to rule out an
unresolved pneumothorax or persistent air leak, which is characteristic of a ruptured bullae
caused by abnormally wide changes in negative intrathoracic pressure. Option B may indicate
hypoventilation from chest tube discomfort and usually improves when the chest tube is
removed. Option C usually indicates an infection, which may not be related to the chest tube.
Option D is an expected finding.
A hospitalized client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous
pump infusion. He begins to cough and produces a moderate amount of white sputum. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds.
B. Turn off the continuous feeding pump.
C. Check placement of the nasogastric tube.
D. Measure the amount of residual feeding. - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- A productive cough may indicate that the feeding has been aspirated. The nurse
should first stop the feeding to prevent further aspiration. Options A, C, and D should all be
performed before restarting the tube feeding if no evidence of aspiration is present and the tube
is in place.
learn hepatitis b, a , c etc - Correct Answer :
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment finding has the
highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
A+ TEST BANK 4
