Complete Pharmacology Test Bank: 400-Item
Mega Exam Series (Questions 1–150
2025/2026
1. A patient is prescribed furosemide for edema. What is the primary
electrolyte to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause
significant potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia.
2. Which class of drugs is first-line for hypertension in patients with
diabetes?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce proteinuria and protect kidney
function, making them first-line in diabetic patients.
3. A patient taking warfarin presents with bruising. Which lab should
be checked?
A. CBC
B. INR
C. PT only
D. aPTT
Rationale: Warfarin affects the clotting cascade, so the INR is the
most reliable measure of anticoagulation status.
,4. Which antibiotic is considered first-line for community-acquired
pneumonia in an adult?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline
Rationale: Macrolides like azithromycin are first-line for
uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia in adults
without comorbidities.
5. What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers?
A. Block alpha-1 receptors
B. Block beta-adrenergic receptors
C. Increase cAMP
D. Inhibit ACE
Rationale: Beta-blockers inhibit beta-adrenergic receptors,
decreasing heart rate and cardiac output.
6. Which medication is used as the first-line treatment for type 2
diabetes?
A. Insulin
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Metformin
D. GLP-1 agonists
Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and decreases
hepatic glucose production, making it first-line therapy.
7. A patient has been prescribed digoxin. Which electrolyte
imbalance increases the risk of toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
, D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Low potassium enhances digoxin binding to Na+/K+
ATPase, increasing toxicity risk.
8. Which opioid has a ceiling effect for analgesia?
A. Morphine
B. Tramadol
C. Fentanyl
D. Hydromorphone
Rationale: Tramadol has a partial agonist effect, producing a
ceiling effect on analgesia and respiratory depression.
9. Which antiarrhythmic is used for atrial fibrillation and is
contraindicated in asthma?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Digoxin
D. Adenosine
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol can
worsen bronchospasm in asthma patients.
10. A patient on long-term corticosteroids should be monitored
for which side effect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Chronic corticosteroid use reduces bone density,
increasing fracture risk.
11. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
, C. Vitamin K
D. Atropine
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores,
preventing hepatic damage from acetaminophen toxicity.
12. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI)?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Phenelzine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Bupropion
Rationale: Fluoxetine selectively inhibits serotonin reuptake,
increasing serotonin availability in the CNS.
13. Which medication is used for rapid-sequence induction in
intubation?
A. Midazolam
B. Succinylcholine
C. Diazepam
D. Propofol alone
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular
blocker with rapid onset, ideal for intubation.
14. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to
teratogenicity?
A. Penicillin
B. Warfarin
C. Insulin
D. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause fetal
malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
Mega Exam Series (Questions 1–150
2025/2026
1. A patient is prescribed furosemide for edema. What is the primary
electrolyte to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause
significant potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia.
2. Which class of drugs is first-line for hypertension in patients with
diabetes?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce proteinuria and protect kidney
function, making them first-line in diabetic patients.
3. A patient taking warfarin presents with bruising. Which lab should
be checked?
A. CBC
B. INR
C. PT only
D. aPTT
Rationale: Warfarin affects the clotting cascade, so the INR is the
most reliable measure of anticoagulation status.
,4. Which antibiotic is considered first-line for community-acquired
pneumonia in an adult?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline
Rationale: Macrolides like azithromycin are first-line for
uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia in adults
without comorbidities.
5. What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers?
A. Block alpha-1 receptors
B. Block beta-adrenergic receptors
C. Increase cAMP
D. Inhibit ACE
Rationale: Beta-blockers inhibit beta-adrenergic receptors,
decreasing heart rate and cardiac output.
6. Which medication is used as the first-line treatment for type 2
diabetes?
A. Insulin
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Metformin
D. GLP-1 agonists
Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and decreases
hepatic glucose production, making it first-line therapy.
7. A patient has been prescribed digoxin. Which electrolyte
imbalance increases the risk of toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
, D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Low potassium enhances digoxin binding to Na+/K+
ATPase, increasing toxicity risk.
8. Which opioid has a ceiling effect for analgesia?
A. Morphine
B. Tramadol
C. Fentanyl
D. Hydromorphone
Rationale: Tramadol has a partial agonist effect, producing a
ceiling effect on analgesia and respiratory depression.
9. Which antiarrhythmic is used for atrial fibrillation and is
contraindicated in asthma?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Digoxin
D. Adenosine
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol can
worsen bronchospasm in asthma patients.
10. A patient on long-term corticosteroids should be monitored
for which side effect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Chronic corticosteroid use reduces bone density,
increasing fracture risk.
11. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
, C. Vitamin K
D. Atropine
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores,
preventing hepatic damage from acetaminophen toxicity.
12. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI)?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Phenelzine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Bupropion
Rationale: Fluoxetine selectively inhibits serotonin reuptake,
increasing serotonin availability in the CNS.
13. Which medication is used for rapid-sequence induction in
intubation?
A. Midazolam
B. Succinylcholine
C. Diazepam
D. Propofol alone
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular
blocker with rapid onset, ideal for intubation.
14. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to
teratogenicity?
A. Penicillin
B. Warfarin
C. Insulin
D. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause fetal
malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
