✅FITZ Exit Exam | 2025/2026 Edition |
Verified Questions and 100% Correct
Answers | A+ Graded Nurse Practitioner
Board Review
FITZ Exit Exam – Original Practice Questions (1–25)
Pharmacology
Q1: A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte
imbalance should be monitored?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitor
potassium and educate the patient on potassium-rich foods.
Q2: A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test is used to monitor
therapy?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR
Explanation: Warfarin affects vitamin K–dependent clotting factors; PT/INR monitors
anticoagulation effectiveness.
Q3: A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should educate about:
A) Signs of hypoglycemia
,B) Signs of digoxin toxicity (nausea, vision changes, arrhythmias)
C) Increased urination
D) Increased appetite
Answer: B) Signs of digoxin toxicity
Explanation: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. Toxicity signs include nausea, vomiting,
vision changes, and arrhythmias.
Q4: Which antihypertensive is considered first-line in diabetic patients?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B) ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors protect renal function and are preferred in patients with diabetes.
Q5: A patient is prescribed albuterol inhaler PRN. The main adverse effect to monitor is:
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia and tremor
C) Hypotension
D) Constipation
Answer: B) Tachycardia and tremor
Explanation: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist; side effects include increased heart rate and fine
tremors.
Diagnostics & Lab Interpretation
Q6: A patient has microcytic anemia with low ferritin. Most likely cause:
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Iron deficiency
C) Folate deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
Answer: B) Iron deficiency
Explanation: Low ferritin and low MCV indicate iron-deficiency anemia.
,Q7: A patient’s fasting glucose is 140 mg/dL on two separate occasions. Diagnosis:
A) Normal
B) Prediabetes
C) Diabetes
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: C) Diabetes
Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two occasions meets diabetes criteria.
Q8: Elevated troponin is most indicative of:
A) Heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Arrhythmia
Answer: B) Myocardial infarction
Explanation: Troponin is highly specific for cardiac muscle injury.
Q9: A patient’s TSH is elevated, free T4 is low. Most likely diagnosis:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Euthyroid
D) Thyroid cancer
Answer: B) Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Elevated TSH with low free T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism.
Q10: Which imaging is preferred for suspected appendicitis in a 10-year-old?
A) CT scan
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) X-ray
Answer: B) Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound is safe and effective in children to avoid radiation exposure.
Clinical Management
, Q11: First-line therapy for mild asthma in adults is:
A) Inhaled corticosteroid
B) Short-acting beta agonist PRN
C) Oral prednisone
D) Montelukast
Answer: B) Short-acting beta agonist PRN
Explanation: Mild intermittent asthma is managed with PRN SABA.
Q12: A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension without comorbidities should be started on:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Beta-blocker
D) Calcium channel blocker
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretic
Explanation: Thiazides are first-line for uncomplicated hypertension per JNC guidelines.
Q13: A 45-year-old diabetic patient presents with chest pain. The next best step:
A) ECG and cardiac enzymes
B) Prescribe aspirin and send home
C) Order echocardiogram only
D) Start statin immediately
Answer: A) ECG and cardiac enzymes
Explanation: Acute coronary syndrome must be ruled out with ECG and troponin.
Q14: A patient with COPD exacerbation shows PaO2 55 mmHg. Best intervention:
A) High-flow oxygen
B) Low-flow oxygen titrated to SpO2 88–92%
C) No oxygen
D) Mechanical ventilation immediately
Answer: B) Low-flow oxygen titrated to SpO2 88–92%
Explanation: COPD patients are at risk of CO2 retention; oxygen must be carefully titrated.
Q15: First-line therapy for community-acquired pneumonia in an outpatient without
comorbidities:
Verified Questions and 100% Correct
Answers | A+ Graded Nurse Practitioner
Board Review
FITZ Exit Exam – Original Practice Questions (1–25)
Pharmacology
Q1: A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte
imbalance should be monitored?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitor
potassium and educate the patient on potassium-rich foods.
Q2: A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab test is used to monitor
therapy?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR
Explanation: Warfarin affects vitamin K–dependent clotting factors; PT/INR monitors
anticoagulation effectiveness.
Q3: A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should educate about:
A) Signs of hypoglycemia
,B) Signs of digoxin toxicity (nausea, vision changes, arrhythmias)
C) Increased urination
D) Increased appetite
Answer: B) Signs of digoxin toxicity
Explanation: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. Toxicity signs include nausea, vomiting,
vision changes, and arrhythmias.
Q4: Which antihypertensive is considered first-line in diabetic patients?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B) ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors protect renal function and are preferred in patients with diabetes.
Q5: A patient is prescribed albuterol inhaler PRN. The main adverse effect to monitor is:
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia and tremor
C) Hypotension
D) Constipation
Answer: B) Tachycardia and tremor
Explanation: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist; side effects include increased heart rate and fine
tremors.
Diagnostics & Lab Interpretation
Q6: A patient has microcytic anemia with low ferritin. Most likely cause:
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Iron deficiency
C) Folate deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
Answer: B) Iron deficiency
Explanation: Low ferritin and low MCV indicate iron-deficiency anemia.
,Q7: A patient’s fasting glucose is 140 mg/dL on two separate occasions. Diagnosis:
A) Normal
B) Prediabetes
C) Diabetes
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: C) Diabetes
Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two occasions meets diabetes criteria.
Q8: Elevated troponin is most indicative of:
A) Heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Arrhythmia
Answer: B) Myocardial infarction
Explanation: Troponin is highly specific for cardiac muscle injury.
Q9: A patient’s TSH is elevated, free T4 is low. Most likely diagnosis:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Euthyroid
D) Thyroid cancer
Answer: B) Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Elevated TSH with low free T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism.
Q10: Which imaging is preferred for suspected appendicitis in a 10-year-old?
A) CT scan
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) X-ray
Answer: B) Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound is safe and effective in children to avoid radiation exposure.
Clinical Management
, Q11: First-line therapy for mild asthma in adults is:
A) Inhaled corticosteroid
B) Short-acting beta agonist PRN
C) Oral prednisone
D) Montelukast
Answer: B) Short-acting beta agonist PRN
Explanation: Mild intermittent asthma is managed with PRN SABA.
Q12: A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension without comorbidities should be started on:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Beta-blocker
D) Calcium channel blocker
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretic
Explanation: Thiazides are first-line for uncomplicated hypertension per JNC guidelines.
Q13: A 45-year-old diabetic patient presents with chest pain. The next best step:
A) ECG and cardiac enzymes
B) Prescribe aspirin and send home
C) Order echocardiogram only
D) Start statin immediately
Answer: A) ECG and cardiac enzymes
Explanation: Acute coronary syndrome must be ruled out with ECG and troponin.
Q14: A patient with COPD exacerbation shows PaO2 55 mmHg. Best intervention:
A) High-flow oxygen
B) Low-flow oxygen titrated to SpO2 88–92%
C) No oxygen
D) Mechanical ventilation immediately
Answer: B) Low-flow oxygen titrated to SpO2 88–92%
Explanation: COPD patients are at risk of CO2 retention; oxygen must be carefully titrated.
Q15: First-line therapy for community-acquired pneumonia in an outpatient without
comorbidities:
