NC BLET STATE EXAM – 100 QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS (2026 EDITION)
Complete Concept Review & Practice Materials
1–20: Legal Concepts & Constitutional Law
1. What amendment protects citizens against unreasonable searches and seizures?
Answer: The Fourth Amendment.
2. What legal threshold is required for an officer to briefly detain a suspect for
investigation?
Answer: Reasonable suspicion.
3. What is required for an officer to make an arrest?
Answer: Probable cause.
4. Which amendment guarantees the right to counsel?
Answer: Sixth Amendment.
5. Which amendment protects against self-incrimination?
Answer: Fifth Amendment.
6. What is the primary purpose of Miranda warnings?
Answer: To inform suspects of their rights against self-incrimination and to counsel.
7. When must Miranda warnings be given?
Answer: Prior to custodial interrogation.
8. What is the exclusionary rule?
Answer: Evidence obtained illegally must be excluded from trial.
9. What is “Terry v. Ohio” known for?
Answer: Establishing stop-and-frisk based on reasonable suspicion.
, 10. What is an exigent circumstance?
Answer: A situation allowing officers to enter without a warrant due to immediate
danger or destruction of evidence.
11. What is the plain view doctrine?
Answer: Officers may seize evidence that is clearly visible while legally present.
12. What is the purpose of a search warrant?
Answer: To authorize the search of a specific location for specific items.
13. What must a warrant be based on?
Answer: Probable cause supported by oath or affirmation.
14. What is seizure?
Answer: Meaningful interference with a person’s freedom of movement or property.
15. What standard applies to school searches by school officials?
Answer: Reasonable suspicion.
16. Double jeopardy protects individuals from what?
Answer: Being tried twice for the same offense.
17. What must officers do when executing a knock-and-announce warrant?
Answer: Identify themselves and state purpose before entering.
18. What is the purpose of an arrest warrant?
Answer: To lawfully take a suspect into custody.
19. Can consent for a search be withdrawn?
Answer: Yes, consent can be revoked at any time.
20. Which amendment protects against cruel and unusual punishment?
Answer: Eighth Amendment.
21–40: Patrol Procedures & Community Policing
21. What is community policing’s primary focus?
Answer: Building partnerships and solving problems collaboratively.
22. What is the first step in problem-oriented policing (POP)?
Answer: Identifying the problem.
,23. SARA stands for?
Answer: Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment.
24. What is a BOLO?
Answer: Be On the Lookout alert.
25. What should officers do before approaching a suspicious vehicle?
Answer: Request backup and run the plate if possible.
26. What is the safest position during a traffic stop?
Answer: Offset position behind the driver’s side rear.
27. What is officer presence considered in use-of-force continuum?
Answer: A level of force.
28. What is the primary goal of patrol?
Answer: Crime prevention and rapid response.
29. What should officers do upon arriving at a crime scene?
Answer: Secure and control the scene.
30. What is the most common patrol method?
Answer: Vehicle patrol.
31. What should officers avoid when interviewing multiple witnesses?
Answer: Allowing them to speak to each other.
32. What is selective enforcement?
Answer: Focusing patrol on areas with high crime or traffic issues.
33. A field interview report documents what?
Answer: Information from suspicious persons contacted.
34. What is a directed patrol?
Answer: Patrol guided by crime analysis or command instructions.
35. What is a show-up identification?
Answer: Presenting a single suspect for immediate ID.
36. When may an officer handcuff a detained person?
Answer: When reasonably necessary for safety.
37. What should officers do if they observe a hazard on patrol?
Answer: Report and secure the area.
, 38. What is the purpose of de-escalation?
Answer: Reduce intensity to safely manage encounters.
39. What does situational awareness involve?
Answer: Constant assessment of environment and threats.
40. What color code represents optimal tactical awareness?
Answer: Condition Yellow.
41–60: Use of Force
41. What Supreme Court case governs use of force?
Answer: Graham v. Connor.
42. Use of force must be what?
Answer: Objectively reasonable.
43. Deadly force may be used when?
Answer: To prevent death or serious bodily harm.
44. What is a continuum?
Answer: Framework outlining levels of force response.
45. What factors determine reasonableness?
Answer: Severity, threat, resistance.
46. Soft empty-hand techniques include?
Answer: Grabbing, holding, joint manipulation.
47. Hard empty-hand techniques include?
Answer: Strikes and kicks.
48. OC spray is considered what level?
Answer: Intermediate force.
49. A Taser is categorized as?
Answer: Less-lethal force.
50. Officers must document force usage when?
Answer: Any time force beyond compliance is used.
ANSWERS (2026 EDITION)
Complete Concept Review & Practice Materials
1–20: Legal Concepts & Constitutional Law
1. What amendment protects citizens against unreasonable searches and seizures?
Answer: The Fourth Amendment.
2. What legal threshold is required for an officer to briefly detain a suspect for
investigation?
Answer: Reasonable suspicion.
3. What is required for an officer to make an arrest?
Answer: Probable cause.
4. Which amendment guarantees the right to counsel?
Answer: Sixth Amendment.
5. Which amendment protects against self-incrimination?
Answer: Fifth Amendment.
6. What is the primary purpose of Miranda warnings?
Answer: To inform suspects of their rights against self-incrimination and to counsel.
7. When must Miranda warnings be given?
Answer: Prior to custodial interrogation.
8. What is the exclusionary rule?
Answer: Evidence obtained illegally must be excluded from trial.
9. What is “Terry v. Ohio” known for?
Answer: Establishing stop-and-frisk based on reasonable suspicion.
, 10. What is an exigent circumstance?
Answer: A situation allowing officers to enter without a warrant due to immediate
danger or destruction of evidence.
11. What is the plain view doctrine?
Answer: Officers may seize evidence that is clearly visible while legally present.
12. What is the purpose of a search warrant?
Answer: To authorize the search of a specific location for specific items.
13. What must a warrant be based on?
Answer: Probable cause supported by oath or affirmation.
14. What is seizure?
Answer: Meaningful interference with a person’s freedom of movement or property.
15. What standard applies to school searches by school officials?
Answer: Reasonable suspicion.
16. Double jeopardy protects individuals from what?
Answer: Being tried twice for the same offense.
17. What must officers do when executing a knock-and-announce warrant?
Answer: Identify themselves and state purpose before entering.
18. What is the purpose of an arrest warrant?
Answer: To lawfully take a suspect into custody.
19. Can consent for a search be withdrawn?
Answer: Yes, consent can be revoked at any time.
20. Which amendment protects against cruel and unusual punishment?
Answer: Eighth Amendment.
21–40: Patrol Procedures & Community Policing
21. What is community policing’s primary focus?
Answer: Building partnerships and solving problems collaboratively.
22. What is the first step in problem-oriented policing (POP)?
Answer: Identifying the problem.
,23. SARA stands for?
Answer: Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment.
24. What is a BOLO?
Answer: Be On the Lookout alert.
25. What should officers do before approaching a suspicious vehicle?
Answer: Request backup and run the plate if possible.
26. What is the safest position during a traffic stop?
Answer: Offset position behind the driver’s side rear.
27. What is officer presence considered in use-of-force continuum?
Answer: A level of force.
28. What is the primary goal of patrol?
Answer: Crime prevention and rapid response.
29. What should officers do upon arriving at a crime scene?
Answer: Secure and control the scene.
30. What is the most common patrol method?
Answer: Vehicle patrol.
31. What should officers avoid when interviewing multiple witnesses?
Answer: Allowing them to speak to each other.
32. What is selective enforcement?
Answer: Focusing patrol on areas with high crime or traffic issues.
33. A field interview report documents what?
Answer: Information from suspicious persons contacted.
34. What is a directed patrol?
Answer: Patrol guided by crime analysis or command instructions.
35. What is a show-up identification?
Answer: Presenting a single suspect for immediate ID.
36. When may an officer handcuff a detained person?
Answer: When reasonably necessary for safety.
37. What should officers do if they observe a hazard on patrol?
Answer: Report and secure the area.
, 38. What is the purpose of de-escalation?
Answer: Reduce intensity to safely manage encounters.
39. What does situational awareness involve?
Answer: Constant assessment of environment and threats.
40. What color code represents optimal tactical awareness?
Answer: Condition Yellow.
41–60: Use of Force
41. What Supreme Court case governs use of force?
Answer: Graham v. Connor.
42. Use of force must be what?
Answer: Objectively reasonable.
43. Deadly force may be used when?
Answer: To prevent death or serious bodily harm.
44. What is a continuum?
Answer: Framework outlining levels of force response.
45. What factors determine reasonableness?
Answer: Severity, threat, resistance.
46. Soft empty-hand techniques include?
Answer: Grabbing, holding, joint manipulation.
47. Hard empty-hand techniques include?
Answer: Strikes and kicks.
48. OC spray is considered what level?
Answer: Intermediate force.
49. A Taser is categorized as?
Answer: Less-lethal force.
50. Officers must document force usage when?
Answer: Any time force beyond compliance is used.
