Oncology Med-Surg Practice Exam – 150 Questions
Section 1: Fundamentals of Oncology (1–20)
1. A patient with newly diagnosed breast cancer asks about the
difference between benign and malignant tumors. The nurse
explains that malignant tumors are characterized by:
A. Slow growth and well-defined borders
B. Rapid growth, invasive, and capable of metastasis
C. Remaining localized and encapsulated
D. Rarely causing tissue damage
B. Rapid growth, invasive, and capable of metastasis
Rationale: Malignant tumors grow rapidly, invade surrounding
tissues, and can metastasize to distant sites, unlike benign tumors
which are usually slow-growing and encapsulated.
2. Which stage of cancer describes a tumor confined to the organ of
origin?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
A. Stage I
Rationale: Stage I cancer is usually localized to the organ of origin
without regional lymph node involvement.
3. The primary purpose of a tumor marker test is to:
A. Replace imaging studies
B. Diagnose cancer with 100% certainty
C. Monitor disease progression or treatment response
D. Determine tumor size
,C. Monitor disease progression or treatment response
Rationale: Tumor markers are useful for tracking treatment efficacy
and recurrence, but they are not definitive for diagnosis.
4. A patient with leukemia is at risk for infection due to:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Neutropenia
C. Anemia
D. Polycythemia
B. Neutropenia
Rationale: Neutropenia, a low neutrophil count, increases
susceptibility to infection, which is common in leukemia patients.
5. Which symptom is an early indicator of hypercalcemia in cancer
patients?
A. Seizures
B. Muscle weakness and fatigue
C. Coma
D. Cardiac arrest
B. Muscle weakness and fatigue
Rationale: Early signs of hypercalcemia include fatigue, muscle
weakness, nausea, and constipation; severe symptoms occur later.
6. A 60-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy reports nausea
and vomiting. The nurse explains that these are primarily caused
by:
A. Tumor invasion of the GI tract
B. Chemotherapy stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone
C. Increased metabolism from cancer
D. Psychological stress
,B. Chemotherapy stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone
Rationale: Chemotherapy can stimulate the brain’s chemoreceptor
trigger zone, causing nausea and vomiting.
7. Which intervention helps prevent stomatitis in patients receiving
radiation therapy to the head and neck?
A. Use of a soft-bristled toothbrush
B. Frequent alcohol-based mouthwashes
C. Rinsing with hydrogen peroxide daily
D. Eating spicy foods
A. Use of a soft-bristled toothbrush
Rationale: Soft-bristled toothbrushes minimize trauma to oral
mucosa, helping prevent stomatitis.
8. The nurse notes that a patient receiving chemotherapy has
alopecia. The best patient education includes:
A. Hair loss is permanent
B. Hair loss will begin 1–2 weeks after treatment starts and is
usually reversible
C. Shaving the head will prevent hair loss
D. Wearing wigs will worsen hair loss
B. Hair loss will begin 1–2 weeks after treatment starts and is usually
reversible
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced alopecia typically starts within
weeks of treatment and hair usually regrows after therapy ends.
9. A patient with lung cancer is scheduled for a PET scan. The nurse
explains that the scan is primarily used to:
A. Assess bone density
B. Detect areas of high metabolic activity indicative of tumors
, C. Replace biopsy procedures
D. Evaluate electrolyte balance
B. Detect areas of high metabolic activity indicative of tumors
Rationale: PET scans detect areas with increased glucose metabolism,
often indicative of cancer cells.
10. Which lab result would indicate tumor lysis syndrome in a
patient starting chemotherapy?
A. Low uric acid
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome can cause elevated potassium,
phosphate, uric acid, and secondary hypocalcemia due to rapid tumor
cell breakdown.
11. A patient with colorectal cancer asks why colonoscopy is
recommended. The nurse explains:
A. Only to detect genetic mutations
B. To detect polyps and early-stage cancers
C. To remove the entire colon
D. To measure tumor markers
B. To detect polyps and early-stage cancers
Rationale: Colonoscopy allows visualization, biopsy, and polyp
removal, aiding early detection and prevention of colorectal cancer.
12. A patient receiving doxorubicin asks about cardiac risk. The
nurse explains the primary concern is:
A. Hypertension
B. Cardiotoxicity leading to heart failure
Section 1: Fundamentals of Oncology (1–20)
1. A patient with newly diagnosed breast cancer asks about the
difference between benign and malignant tumors. The nurse
explains that malignant tumors are characterized by:
A. Slow growth and well-defined borders
B. Rapid growth, invasive, and capable of metastasis
C. Remaining localized and encapsulated
D. Rarely causing tissue damage
B. Rapid growth, invasive, and capable of metastasis
Rationale: Malignant tumors grow rapidly, invade surrounding
tissues, and can metastasize to distant sites, unlike benign tumors
which are usually slow-growing and encapsulated.
2. Which stage of cancer describes a tumor confined to the organ of
origin?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
A. Stage I
Rationale: Stage I cancer is usually localized to the organ of origin
without regional lymph node involvement.
3. The primary purpose of a tumor marker test is to:
A. Replace imaging studies
B. Diagnose cancer with 100% certainty
C. Monitor disease progression or treatment response
D. Determine tumor size
,C. Monitor disease progression or treatment response
Rationale: Tumor markers are useful for tracking treatment efficacy
and recurrence, but they are not definitive for diagnosis.
4. A patient with leukemia is at risk for infection due to:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Neutropenia
C. Anemia
D. Polycythemia
B. Neutropenia
Rationale: Neutropenia, a low neutrophil count, increases
susceptibility to infection, which is common in leukemia patients.
5. Which symptom is an early indicator of hypercalcemia in cancer
patients?
A. Seizures
B. Muscle weakness and fatigue
C. Coma
D. Cardiac arrest
B. Muscle weakness and fatigue
Rationale: Early signs of hypercalcemia include fatigue, muscle
weakness, nausea, and constipation; severe symptoms occur later.
6. A 60-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy reports nausea
and vomiting. The nurse explains that these are primarily caused
by:
A. Tumor invasion of the GI tract
B. Chemotherapy stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone
C. Increased metabolism from cancer
D. Psychological stress
,B. Chemotherapy stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone
Rationale: Chemotherapy can stimulate the brain’s chemoreceptor
trigger zone, causing nausea and vomiting.
7. Which intervention helps prevent stomatitis in patients receiving
radiation therapy to the head and neck?
A. Use of a soft-bristled toothbrush
B. Frequent alcohol-based mouthwashes
C. Rinsing with hydrogen peroxide daily
D. Eating spicy foods
A. Use of a soft-bristled toothbrush
Rationale: Soft-bristled toothbrushes minimize trauma to oral
mucosa, helping prevent stomatitis.
8. The nurse notes that a patient receiving chemotherapy has
alopecia. The best patient education includes:
A. Hair loss is permanent
B. Hair loss will begin 1–2 weeks after treatment starts and is
usually reversible
C. Shaving the head will prevent hair loss
D. Wearing wigs will worsen hair loss
B. Hair loss will begin 1–2 weeks after treatment starts and is usually
reversible
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced alopecia typically starts within
weeks of treatment and hair usually regrows after therapy ends.
9. A patient with lung cancer is scheduled for a PET scan. The nurse
explains that the scan is primarily used to:
A. Assess bone density
B. Detect areas of high metabolic activity indicative of tumors
, C. Replace biopsy procedures
D. Evaluate electrolyte balance
B. Detect areas of high metabolic activity indicative of tumors
Rationale: PET scans detect areas with increased glucose metabolism,
often indicative of cancer cells.
10. Which lab result would indicate tumor lysis syndrome in a
patient starting chemotherapy?
A. Low uric acid
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome can cause elevated potassium,
phosphate, uric acid, and secondary hypocalcemia due to rapid tumor
cell breakdown.
11. A patient with colorectal cancer asks why colonoscopy is
recommended. The nurse explains:
A. Only to detect genetic mutations
B. To detect polyps and early-stage cancers
C. To remove the entire colon
D. To measure tumor markers
B. To detect polyps and early-stage cancers
Rationale: Colonoscopy allows visualization, biopsy, and polyp
removal, aiding early detection and prevention of colorectal cancer.
12. A patient receiving doxorubicin asks about cardiac risk. The
nurse explains the primary concern is:
A. Hypertension
B. Cardiotoxicity leading to heart failure
