Hurst Readiness Exam 2 || 100% Errorless.
What medication should the nurse anticipate giving to a client in preterm labor to stimulate
maturation of the baby's lungs?
1. Magnesium sulfate 2. Terbutaline 3. Methotrexate 4. Betamethasone correct answers
Rationale
4. Correct: Betamethasone is used to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs in case preterm
birth occurs. This medication is given to help prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) by
improving storage and secretion of surfactant that helps to keep the alveoli from collapsing.
1. Incorrect: Magnesium sulfate is given to stop preterm labor, however, if delivery is
imminent, then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs. 2.
Incorrect: Terbutaline is contraindicated in preterm labor, however, if delivery is imminent,
then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs. 3. Incorrect:
Methotrexate is used to stop the growth of the embryo in ectopic pregnancy so that the
fallopian tube can be saved. It is not an agent used in the management of preterm labor.
An adult client has just returned to the nursing care unit following a gastroscopy. Which
intervention should the nurse include on the plan of care?
1. Vital sign checks every 15 min x 4 2. Supine position for 6 hours 3. NPO until return of
gag reflex 4. Irrigate NG tube every 2 hours 5. Raise four siderails correct answers Rationale
1., & 3. Correct: Vital signs post procedure are important to monitor for any post-procedure
complications such as bleeding or any signs of respiratory compromise. VS are checked
frequently for the first hour post procedure. Any client who has a scope inserted down the
throat and has received numbing medication in the back of the throat to depress the gag reflex
should be kept NPO until the gag reflex returns. 2. Incorrect: Supine position for 6 hours is
contraindicated. The HOB should be elevated. In the event the client vomits, he/she is less
likely to aspirate with the HOB elevated. Supine position for 6 hours is used after a heart
catheterization. 4. Incorrect: A client who is going for a gastroscopy procedure cannot have a
nasal gastric tube. An NG tube would interfere with the procedure. 5. Incorrect: Raising all
side rails is a form of restraint. Have the bed in low locked position. Raise three side rails,
and have call light within reach.
A 70 year old client was admitted to the vascular surgery unit during the night shift with
chronic hypertension. At 0830, the unlicensed nursing assistant (UAP) reports that the client's
BP is 198/94. What would be the best action for the charge nurse to delegate at this time?
1. Ask the UAP to put the client back in bed immediately. 2. Tell the UAP to take the BP in
the opposite arm in 15 minutes. 3. Have the LPN/LVN administer the 0900 furosemide and
enalapril now. 4. Ask the LPN/LVN to assess the client for pain. correct answers Rationale
3. Correct: The nurse should recognize the need for measures to reduce the blood pressure.
Administering the client's blood pressure medicine is aimed at correcting the problem. It is
appropriate to administer the medications at this time in relation to the time that the next dose
is due. 1. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not address the problem of
lowering the client's blood pressure. 2. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not
address the problem of lowering the client's blood pressure. 4. Incorrect: This is an
appropriate action, but does not address the problem of lowering the client's blood pressure.
,A client suffers from migraine headaches. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to
find during a migraine attack?
1. Unilateral, pulsating pain quality. 2. Bilateral, pressing/tightening pain quality. 3.
Ipsilateral nasal congestion and rhinorrhea. 4. Headache occurs after recovering from a
headache treated with narcotics. correct answers Rationale
1. Correct: Migraine headaches have a pulsating pain quality, unilateral location, moderate or
severe pain intensity, aggravated by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity
(walking, climbing stairs). During headache at least one of the following accompanies the
headache: nausea and/or vomiting; photophobia and phonophobia. 2. Incorrect: This is seen
in tension headaches. Headaches last 30 minutes to 7 days. Pain is mild or moderate in
intensity. It is not aggravated by routine physical activity. Nausea/vomiting, photophobia and
phonophobia are not common manifestations with tension headaches. These usually start
gradually, often in the middle of the day. 3. Incorrect: This is associated with cluster
headaches, which are severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal
pain lasting 15-180 minutes. Symptoms include stabbing pain in one eye with associated
rhinorrhea (runny nose) and possible drooping eyelid on the affected side. The headaches
tend to occur in "clusters": typically one to three headaches per day (but may be as many as
eight) during a cluster period. 4. Incorrect: Overuse of painkillers for headaches, can,
ironically, lead to rebound headaches. Culprits include over the counter medications such as
aspirin, acetaminophen or ibuprofen, as well as prescription medications. Too much
medication can cause the brain to shift into an excited state, triggering more headaches. Also,
rebound headaches are a symptom of withdrawal as the level of medicine drops in the
bloodstream. Rebound headaches may have associated issues such as difficulty concentrating,
irritability and restlessness but does not typically include photophobia or visual disturbances
as seen with migraines.
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the hospital following a severe motor
vehicle crash (MVC) in which the client was trapped in the car for several hours. The client is
being closely monitored for the development of renal failure. Which assessment finding
would warrant immediate reporting?
1. Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl (97.24 mmol/L) 2. Urinary output of 150 mL per hour. 3. Gradual
increase of BUN levels. 4. Calcium levels of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) correct answers
Rationale
3. Correct. Gradual accumulation of nitrogenous wastes results in elevated BUN and serum
creatinine. This is an indication of impaired renal function. 1. Incorrect. This is a normal
creatinine level. Gradual accumulation of nitrogenous wastes from impaired renal function
results in elevated BUN and serum creatinine. 2. Incorrect. This is a normal output level. This
level alone would not necessarily be an indicator of acute renal failure and that value alone
would not warrant reporting it to the primary healthcare provider. 4. Incorrect. Calcium level
of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) is considered normal. When observing for renal functioning you
would assess the BUN and creatinine levels. In addition, the calcium level may drop
(hypocalcemia) in renal failure inverse relationship change due to the rising serum phosphate
levels. However, the calcium level presented is within normal limits (WNL).
A client has been admitted for exacerbation of ulcerative colitis with severe dehydration.
What is the best indicator that this client has an actual fluid deficit?
,1. Stool count of 10 episodes of diarrhea in 24 hours. 2. Weight increase of 2 kg and a 24
hour output of 1000 mL. 3. Admission weight of 74.3 kg and 2 days later a weight of 72 kg.
4. Daily intake of 2400 mL and an output of 1600 mL, plus diarrheal stools. correct answers
Rationale
3. Correct: Any acute weight gain or loss is fluid. Weight is the best measurement for fluid
loss or gain. Acute weight losses correspond to fluid volume deficits. This client has lost 2.3
kg over a 2 day period, indicating a fluid volume deficit (FVD). 1. Incorrect: Although 10
loose stools would result in fluid loss, the stool count of 10 episodes of diarrhea is an
inaccurate measurement. The amount of fluid loss can vary depending on the amount of
diarrhea, 10 "episodes" does not indicate how much fluid is lost. 2. Incorrect: Weight gains
indicate fluid volume retention and excess. This question asks about fluid volume deficit.
Also, it does not take into account the client's intake. Only the output is considered, so output
has less meaning without being compared to the intake. 4. Incorrect: Daily I&O is good
information to have when assessing fluid status, but the diarrhea stools are an inaccurate
measurement. The weight remains the best measurement for indicating a fluid deficit.
The nurse is working with a LPN/VN and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
clients would be appropriate for the nurse to assign to the LPN/VN?
1. In Bucks traction requiring frequent pain medication. 2. 24 hours post appendectomy. 3.
Diagnosed with cholelithiasis and scheduled for surgery in the AM. 4. Admitted 6 hours ago
in adrenal insufficiency. 5. Client newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. correct answers
Rationale
1., 2., & 3. Correct These clients are stable and require predictable care that can be done
appropriately by the LPN/VN. 4. Incorrect: This client has adrenal insufficiency. Primary
adrenal insufficiency occurs when at least 90 percent of the adrenal cortex has been destroyed
generally from autoimmune disorders. Secondary adrenal insufficiency can be caused by such
things as abrupt stoppage of corticosteroid medications and surgical removal of pituitary
tumors. As a result, often both glucocorticoid (cortisol) and mineralocorticoid (aldosterone)
hormones may be lacking. This puts the client at risk for fluid volume deficit (FVD) and
shock. This requires the higher level assessment skills of the RN. 5. Incorrect: A newly
diagnosed client may be unstable and would require assessment, care plan development and
teaching for the newly diagnosed diabetic which cannot be performed by the PN.
The triage nurse in the emergency department (ED) assesses 4 clients. Which client is in need
of emergent care?
1. A 52 year old who has a partially amputated finger. 2. A 9 month old with temperature of
103°F (39.4°C). 3. A two year old with excessive drooling and a weak cough. 4. A 28 year
old experiencing a migraine headache for three days. correct answers Rationale
3. Correct: The two year old is exhibiting signs of respiratory difficulty with excessive
drooling and a weak cough. Partial airway obstruction is likely and maybe the result of acute
epiglottitis in which rapid progression to severe respiratory distress can occur . Airway takes
priority over the other clients. 1. Incorrect: The partial amputation would have associated
bleeding could be seen next, but airway takes priority. 2. Incorrect: Most fevers in children do
not last for long periods and do not have much consequence. Elevated temperature would not
take priority over airway. Antipyretics can be given in triage. 4. Incorrect: The migraine is
not emergent. Take care of life-threatening illnesses/injuries first. Remember, pain never
killed anyone.
, A new nurse has a prescription to insert a feeding tube. The new nurse has never performed
the procedure, but learned how to do it while in nursing school. What would be the best
action by this nurse?
1. Ask to observe another nurse perform the procedure. 2. Look up how to perform the
procedure in the policy and procedure manual. 3. Tell the charge nurse that someone else will
have to place the feeding tube down the client. 4. Insert the feeding tube as learned in nursing
school. correct answers Rationale
2. Correct. The best action for the nurse to take is to look up how the procedure is done in the
agency by looking it up in the policy and procedure manual. The nurse could then discuss the
procedure with an experienced nurse and ask the nurse to observe the new nurse while
inserting the feeding tube. 1. Incorrect. This is passive and would not benefit the new nurse to
strengthen the skills. The best action would be to look up how to do the procedure, discuss
with another nurse, and ask that nurse to observe the insertion of the feeding tube. 3.
Incorrect. This is not the best option. The new nurse needs to insert the feeding tube in order
to become more proficient with this skill. This option will not help the new nurse gain
confidence in nursing skills. 4. Incorrect. Although the new nurse should have the basic
knowledge of feeding tube insertion, the nurse should follow agency policy and procedure. It
is then best to discuss the procedure with another nurse and ask the nurse to observe the
feeding tube insertion since this nurse has never performed the skill.
How would the nurse determine the correct size oropharyngeal airway for a client?
1. Select the same size as the little finger of the victim. 2. Measure from the tip of the lips to
the epiglottis. 3. Determine the length from the earlobe to the xiphoid process. 4. Measure
from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth. correct answers Rationale
4. Correct: An airway of proper size will extend from the corner of the client's mouth to the
tip of the earlobe on the same side of the client's face. 1. Incorrect: The size of the client's
little finger does not determine the size of the oral airway that should be used. This would
result in an inappropriate size oropharyngeal airway to be selected. 2. Incorrect: The
epiglottis is an internal body part thus making it impossible to correctly measure it. In
addition, the measurement would not determine the appropriate size oropharyngeal airway to
use. 3. Incorrect: Measuring from the client's earlobe to the client's xiphoid process would
make the oral airway too long.
A client, who only speaks Spanish, is admitted to the surgical unit. What is the best method
for the nurse to inform the client about a pre-surgical procedure?
1. Use an audiotape made in Spanish to inform the client of the pre-surgical procedure. 2.
Draw pictures of what the client can expect prior to surgery. 3. Facial expressions and
gestures can be used to let the client know what to expect. 4. Enlist the help of a Spanish
speaking family friend to tell the client what to expect prior to surgery. correct answers
Rationale
1. Correct: Audiotapes made in the language of high volume clients who speak a language
other than English is helpful to inform clients about admission procedures, room and unit
orientation, and pre-surgical procedures. The tapes are received from sources where
reliability of information is provided. This is the most reliable option for providing accurate
information. 2. Incorrect: This is not the best option. Some pre-surgical procedure may be
difficult to draw or difficult for the client to understand what was drawn. There is no way to
know if the client is understanding what the nurse is trying to communicate through the
What medication should the nurse anticipate giving to a client in preterm labor to stimulate
maturation of the baby's lungs?
1. Magnesium sulfate 2. Terbutaline 3. Methotrexate 4. Betamethasone correct answers
Rationale
4. Correct: Betamethasone is used to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs in case preterm
birth occurs. This medication is given to help prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) by
improving storage and secretion of surfactant that helps to keep the alveoli from collapsing.
1. Incorrect: Magnesium sulfate is given to stop preterm labor, however, if delivery is
imminent, then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs. 2.
Incorrect: Terbutaline is contraindicated in preterm labor, however, if delivery is imminent,
then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs. 3. Incorrect:
Methotrexate is used to stop the growth of the embryo in ectopic pregnancy so that the
fallopian tube can be saved. It is not an agent used in the management of preterm labor.
An adult client has just returned to the nursing care unit following a gastroscopy. Which
intervention should the nurse include on the plan of care?
1. Vital sign checks every 15 min x 4 2. Supine position for 6 hours 3. NPO until return of
gag reflex 4. Irrigate NG tube every 2 hours 5. Raise four siderails correct answers Rationale
1., & 3. Correct: Vital signs post procedure are important to monitor for any post-procedure
complications such as bleeding or any signs of respiratory compromise. VS are checked
frequently for the first hour post procedure. Any client who has a scope inserted down the
throat and has received numbing medication in the back of the throat to depress the gag reflex
should be kept NPO until the gag reflex returns. 2. Incorrect: Supine position for 6 hours is
contraindicated. The HOB should be elevated. In the event the client vomits, he/she is less
likely to aspirate with the HOB elevated. Supine position for 6 hours is used after a heart
catheterization. 4. Incorrect: A client who is going for a gastroscopy procedure cannot have a
nasal gastric tube. An NG tube would interfere with the procedure. 5. Incorrect: Raising all
side rails is a form of restraint. Have the bed in low locked position. Raise three side rails,
and have call light within reach.
A 70 year old client was admitted to the vascular surgery unit during the night shift with
chronic hypertension. At 0830, the unlicensed nursing assistant (UAP) reports that the client's
BP is 198/94. What would be the best action for the charge nurse to delegate at this time?
1. Ask the UAP to put the client back in bed immediately. 2. Tell the UAP to take the BP in
the opposite arm in 15 minutes. 3. Have the LPN/LVN administer the 0900 furosemide and
enalapril now. 4. Ask the LPN/LVN to assess the client for pain. correct answers Rationale
3. Correct: The nurse should recognize the need for measures to reduce the blood pressure.
Administering the client's blood pressure medicine is aimed at correcting the problem. It is
appropriate to administer the medications at this time in relation to the time that the next dose
is due. 1. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not address the problem of
lowering the client's blood pressure. 2. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not
address the problem of lowering the client's blood pressure. 4. Incorrect: This is an
appropriate action, but does not address the problem of lowering the client's blood pressure.
,A client suffers from migraine headaches. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to
find during a migraine attack?
1. Unilateral, pulsating pain quality. 2. Bilateral, pressing/tightening pain quality. 3.
Ipsilateral nasal congestion and rhinorrhea. 4. Headache occurs after recovering from a
headache treated with narcotics. correct answers Rationale
1. Correct: Migraine headaches have a pulsating pain quality, unilateral location, moderate or
severe pain intensity, aggravated by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity
(walking, climbing stairs). During headache at least one of the following accompanies the
headache: nausea and/or vomiting; photophobia and phonophobia. 2. Incorrect: This is seen
in tension headaches. Headaches last 30 minutes to 7 days. Pain is mild or moderate in
intensity. It is not aggravated by routine physical activity. Nausea/vomiting, photophobia and
phonophobia are not common manifestations with tension headaches. These usually start
gradually, often in the middle of the day. 3. Incorrect: This is associated with cluster
headaches, which are severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal
pain lasting 15-180 minutes. Symptoms include stabbing pain in one eye with associated
rhinorrhea (runny nose) and possible drooping eyelid on the affected side. The headaches
tend to occur in "clusters": typically one to three headaches per day (but may be as many as
eight) during a cluster period. 4. Incorrect: Overuse of painkillers for headaches, can,
ironically, lead to rebound headaches. Culprits include over the counter medications such as
aspirin, acetaminophen or ibuprofen, as well as prescription medications. Too much
medication can cause the brain to shift into an excited state, triggering more headaches. Also,
rebound headaches are a symptom of withdrawal as the level of medicine drops in the
bloodstream. Rebound headaches may have associated issues such as difficulty concentrating,
irritability and restlessness but does not typically include photophobia or visual disturbances
as seen with migraines.
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the hospital following a severe motor
vehicle crash (MVC) in which the client was trapped in the car for several hours. The client is
being closely monitored for the development of renal failure. Which assessment finding
would warrant immediate reporting?
1. Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl (97.24 mmol/L) 2. Urinary output of 150 mL per hour. 3. Gradual
increase of BUN levels. 4. Calcium levels of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) correct answers
Rationale
3. Correct. Gradual accumulation of nitrogenous wastes results in elevated BUN and serum
creatinine. This is an indication of impaired renal function. 1. Incorrect. This is a normal
creatinine level. Gradual accumulation of nitrogenous wastes from impaired renal function
results in elevated BUN and serum creatinine. 2. Incorrect. This is a normal output level. This
level alone would not necessarily be an indicator of acute renal failure and that value alone
would not warrant reporting it to the primary healthcare provider. 4. Incorrect. Calcium level
of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) is considered normal. When observing for renal functioning you
would assess the BUN and creatinine levels. In addition, the calcium level may drop
(hypocalcemia) in renal failure inverse relationship change due to the rising serum phosphate
levels. However, the calcium level presented is within normal limits (WNL).
A client has been admitted for exacerbation of ulcerative colitis with severe dehydration.
What is the best indicator that this client has an actual fluid deficit?
,1. Stool count of 10 episodes of diarrhea in 24 hours. 2. Weight increase of 2 kg and a 24
hour output of 1000 mL. 3. Admission weight of 74.3 kg and 2 days later a weight of 72 kg.
4. Daily intake of 2400 mL and an output of 1600 mL, plus diarrheal stools. correct answers
Rationale
3. Correct: Any acute weight gain or loss is fluid. Weight is the best measurement for fluid
loss or gain. Acute weight losses correspond to fluid volume deficits. This client has lost 2.3
kg over a 2 day period, indicating a fluid volume deficit (FVD). 1. Incorrect: Although 10
loose stools would result in fluid loss, the stool count of 10 episodes of diarrhea is an
inaccurate measurement. The amount of fluid loss can vary depending on the amount of
diarrhea, 10 "episodes" does not indicate how much fluid is lost. 2. Incorrect: Weight gains
indicate fluid volume retention and excess. This question asks about fluid volume deficit.
Also, it does not take into account the client's intake. Only the output is considered, so output
has less meaning without being compared to the intake. 4. Incorrect: Daily I&O is good
information to have when assessing fluid status, but the diarrhea stools are an inaccurate
measurement. The weight remains the best measurement for indicating a fluid deficit.
The nurse is working with a LPN/VN and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
clients would be appropriate for the nurse to assign to the LPN/VN?
1. In Bucks traction requiring frequent pain medication. 2. 24 hours post appendectomy. 3.
Diagnosed with cholelithiasis and scheduled for surgery in the AM. 4. Admitted 6 hours ago
in adrenal insufficiency. 5. Client newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. correct answers
Rationale
1., 2., & 3. Correct These clients are stable and require predictable care that can be done
appropriately by the LPN/VN. 4. Incorrect: This client has adrenal insufficiency. Primary
adrenal insufficiency occurs when at least 90 percent of the adrenal cortex has been destroyed
generally from autoimmune disorders. Secondary adrenal insufficiency can be caused by such
things as abrupt stoppage of corticosteroid medications and surgical removal of pituitary
tumors. As a result, often both glucocorticoid (cortisol) and mineralocorticoid (aldosterone)
hormones may be lacking. This puts the client at risk for fluid volume deficit (FVD) and
shock. This requires the higher level assessment skills of the RN. 5. Incorrect: A newly
diagnosed client may be unstable and would require assessment, care plan development and
teaching for the newly diagnosed diabetic which cannot be performed by the PN.
The triage nurse in the emergency department (ED) assesses 4 clients. Which client is in need
of emergent care?
1. A 52 year old who has a partially amputated finger. 2. A 9 month old with temperature of
103°F (39.4°C). 3. A two year old with excessive drooling and a weak cough. 4. A 28 year
old experiencing a migraine headache for three days. correct answers Rationale
3. Correct: The two year old is exhibiting signs of respiratory difficulty with excessive
drooling and a weak cough. Partial airway obstruction is likely and maybe the result of acute
epiglottitis in which rapid progression to severe respiratory distress can occur . Airway takes
priority over the other clients. 1. Incorrect: The partial amputation would have associated
bleeding could be seen next, but airway takes priority. 2. Incorrect: Most fevers in children do
not last for long periods and do not have much consequence. Elevated temperature would not
take priority over airway. Antipyretics can be given in triage. 4. Incorrect: The migraine is
not emergent. Take care of life-threatening illnesses/injuries first. Remember, pain never
killed anyone.
, A new nurse has a prescription to insert a feeding tube. The new nurse has never performed
the procedure, but learned how to do it while in nursing school. What would be the best
action by this nurse?
1. Ask to observe another nurse perform the procedure. 2. Look up how to perform the
procedure in the policy and procedure manual. 3. Tell the charge nurse that someone else will
have to place the feeding tube down the client. 4. Insert the feeding tube as learned in nursing
school. correct answers Rationale
2. Correct. The best action for the nurse to take is to look up how the procedure is done in the
agency by looking it up in the policy and procedure manual. The nurse could then discuss the
procedure with an experienced nurse and ask the nurse to observe the new nurse while
inserting the feeding tube. 1. Incorrect. This is passive and would not benefit the new nurse to
strengthen the skills. The best action would be to look up how to do the procedure, discuss
with another nurse, and ask that nurse to observe the insertion of the feeding tube. 3.
Incorrect. This is not the best option. The new nurse needs to insert the feeding tube in order
to become more proficient with this skill. This option will not help the new nurse gain
confidence in nursing skills. 4. Incorrect. Although the new nurse should have the basic
knowledge of feeding tube insertion, the nurse should follow agency policy and procedure. It
is then best to discuss the procedure with another nurse and ask the nurse to observe the
feeding tube insertion since this nurse has never performed the skill.
How would the nurse determine the correct size oropharyngeal airway for a client?
1. Select the same size as the little finger of the victim. 2. Measure from the tip of the lips to
the epiglottis. 3. Determine the length from the earlobe to the xiphoid process. 4. Measure
from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth. correct answers Rationale
4. Correct: An airway of proper size will extend from the corner of the client's mouth to the
tip of the earlobe on the same side of the client's face. 1. Incorrect: The size of the client's
little finger does not determine the size of the oral airway that should be used. This would
result in an inappropriate size oropharyngeal airway to be selected. 2. Incorrect: The
epiglottis is an internal body part thus making it impossible to correctly measure it. In
addition, the measurement would not determine the appropriate size oropharyngeal airway to
use. 3. Incorrect: Measuring from the client's earlobe to the client's xiphoid process would
make the oral airway too long.
A client, who only speaks Spanish, is admitted to the surgical unit. What is the best method
for the nurse to inform the client about a pre-surgical procedure?
1. Use an audiotape made in Spanish to inform the client of the pre-surgical procedure. 2.
Draw pictures of what the client can expect prior to surgery. 3. Facial expressions and
gestures can be used to let the client know what to expect. 4. Enlist the help of a Spanish
speaking family friend to tell the client what to expect prior to surgery. correct answers
Rationale
1. Correct: Audiotapes made in the language of high volume clients who speak a language
other than English is helpful to inform clients about admission procedures, room and unit
orientation, and pre-surgical procedures. The tapes are received from sources where
reliability of information is provided. This is the most reliable option for providing accurate
information. 2. Incorrect: This is not the best option. Some pre-surgical procedure may be
difficult to draw or difficult for the client to understand what was drawn. There is no way to
know if the client is understanding what the nurse is trying to communicate through the
