HESI PRACTICE EXAM-PHARM
315 Complete Multiple Choices
Questions with Correct
Answers with Rationale Latest
2025/2026 Verified
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
complications during the use of an opioid analgesic?
- ANS -A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with
inflammatory bowel disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic
ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of morphine. Adverse
effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk for clients with diabetes
or a fracture as for the client with bowel disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse
implement prior to administering the digoxin?
- ANS -Assess the serum potassium level.
,Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis
toxicity in persons receiving digoxin. The nurse should monitor the
client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and respiratory rate will
not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with digitalis.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan).
Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide?
- ANS -Expected duration of flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason
for discontinuing niacin. Inclusion of this effect in client teaching may
promote compliance in taking the medication. While nutrition tips and
managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize or
cope with normal side effects associated with niacin (Niaspan), flushing
is intense and causes the most concern for the client.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the
triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his
legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the
nurse should provide to this client?
- ANS -Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because
muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect.
Rationale:
,Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and
potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be
evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease.
The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to
- ANS -maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5
or above which is necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
- ANS -Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides
the best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release
oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed
schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient
safety due to cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib
(Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is
allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to
, implement prior to administering the first dose?
- ANS -Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic
reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the
healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an
insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer
this client?
- ANS -Epinephrine.
Rationale:
Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that stimulates beta receptors to
increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms
in anaphylaxis. On the ither hand, dopamine is a vasopressor used to
treat clients with shock. Ephedrine causes peripheral vasoconstriction
and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine is an
antihistamine decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic
reactions and motion sickness. Epinephrine is the medication of choice in
treating anaphylaxis.
A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and
the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication
administration. Which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that
the client teaching has been effective?
315 Complete Multiple Choices
Questions with Correct
Answers with Rationale Latest
2025/2026 Verified
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
complications during the use of an opioid analgesic?
- ANS -A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client with
inflammatory bowel disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic
ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of morphine. Adverse
effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk for clients with diabetes
or a fracture as for the client with bowel disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse
implement prior to administering the digoxin?
- ANS -Assess the serum potassium level.
,Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis
toxicity in persons receiving digoxin. The nurse should monitor the
client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and respiratory rate will
not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with digitalis.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan).
Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide?
- ANS -Expected duration of flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason
for discontinuing niacin. Inclusion of this effect in client teaching may
promote compliance in taking the medication. While nutrition tips and
managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize or
cope with normal side effects associated with niacin (Niaspan), flushing
is intense and causes the most concern for the client.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the
triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his
legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the
nurse should provide to this client?
- ANS -Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because
muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect.
Rationale:
,Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and
potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be
evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease.
The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to
- ANS -maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5
or above which is necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
- ANS -Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours provides
the best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release
oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed
schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours may jeopardize patient
safety due to cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib
(Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is
allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to
, implement prior to administering the first dose?
- ANS -Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic
reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the
healthcare provider should be notified of the client's allergies.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an
insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer
this client?
- ANS -Epinephrine.
Rationale:
Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that stimulates beta receptors to
increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms
in anaphylaxis. On the ither hand, dopamine is a vasopressor used to
treat clients with shock. Ephedrine causes peripheral vasoconstriction
and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine is an
antihistamine decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic
reactions and motion sickness. Epinephrine is the medication of choice in
treating anaphylaxis.
A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and
the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication
administration. Which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that
the client teaching has been effective?
