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Exam (elaborations)

NSG 533 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY TEST 1 WEEK 4 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS EXAM UPDATE

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Ace your NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology exam with this Test 1 study guide. Covers antidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs), anxiety disorders (GAD, SAD, Panic), and sleep pharmacology. Essential for NP students. nurse practitioner exam, NP study guide, advanced pharmacology, NSG 533, psychiatric medication, mental health pharm, test bank, nursing student, exam prep, graduate nursing

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Uploaded on
November 23, 2025
Number of pages
32
Written in
2025/2026
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NSG 533 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY TEST 1 WEEK 4
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
EXAM 2025\2026 UPDATE


Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because
of the long half-life of its potent active metabolite?
A. Escitalopram
B. Fluvoxamine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline - CORRECT ANSWER - C


Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within
approximately 1 week
of starting treatment?
A. Depressed mood
B. Suicidal thoughts
C. Anhedonia
D. Sleep - CORRECT ANSWER - D


Of the following combinations of medications, which one would you want to
avoid?
A. Fluoxetine-lithium
B. Fluoxetine-phenelzine
C. Citalopram-valproic acid
D. Citalopram-aripiprazole - CORRECT ANSWER - B

,A 26-year-old man with a history of depression has been taking sertraline 200
mg/day for 12 weeks with no response. The patient has no other complications.
The physician asks for your recommendation. The most reasonable
recommendation would be to:
A. Increase sertraline
B. Add fluoxetine
C. Switch to amitriptyline
D. Change to venlafaxine
E. Decrease sertraline - CORRECT ANSWER - D


Which of the following is a dangerous combination?
A. MAOI-lorazepam
B. MAOI-acetaminophen
C. MAOI-meperidine
D. MAOI-ziprasidone - CORRECT ANSWER - C


A 23-year-old married white woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic
complaining of decreased sleep, decreased appetite, decreased concentration,
depressed
mood, thoughts of death, and lack of interest in activities for 6 weeks' duration.
She has
no history of psychiatric illness and takes no medications except for Ortho-Tri
Cyclen Lo
daily. Based upon the patients symptoms, choose the best medication to treat
this patient.
A. Nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Paroxetine 20 mg po daily
C. St. John's wort 300 mg po three times daily
D. Amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime - CORRECT ANSWER - B

,A 36-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for a severe methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus diabetic foot infection and is started on linezolid 600 mg
IV every 12 hours. His medication profile includes paroxetine 40 mg every
morning, trazodone 100 mg at bedtime as needed for sleep, and metformin 1000
mg po twice daily. After 3
days on these medications, the patient becomes agitated, confused, and
diaphoretic and develops myoclonic jerks. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Overdose of metformin
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Serotonin syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER - D


A 46-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric outpatient clinic for follow-up
treatment of major depression. She is currently on paroxetine 10 mg at bedtime,
which she started taking 2 months ago when admitted to the psychiatric hospital
for suicidal ideation. During the interview, she says that she does not think the
medication is working because she is just as depressed as she was before taking
the medication and has recently started drinking eight to 10 beers daily to
alleviate the depression. Before this episode, she was
sober for 4 years. Which of the following treatment strategies would be the
appropriate choice for this patient?


A. Stop the paroxetine and start nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Increase the dose of paroxetine to 20 mg po at bedtime
C. Stop the paroxetine and start duloxetine 20 mg/day
D. Continue the paroxetine at them same dose for a longer period of time to
evaluate
whether she will res - CORRECT ANSWER - B


Which of the following is a flaw in the monoamine hypothesis of depression?

, A. Concentrations of neurotransmitters are reduced in the synaptic cleft
B. A switch to a different class of antidepressants does not improve response
C. Antidepressant response is associated with a therapeutic level of the
medication
D. Antidepressant effects on neurotransmitters do not temporally correspond to
response. - CORRECT ANSWER - D


A 26-year-old patient with a first episode of depression has been treated with
duloxetine 60 mg twice daily for the past 4 months. The patient would like to
discontinue treatment. The patient should be told that they need at least
_____full months of antidepressant therapy
after reaching full remission.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12 - CORRECT ANSWER - B


Which of the side effects of trazodone for the treatment of depression is most
frequently observed?
A. Hematuria
B. Delayed orgasm
C. Priapism
D. Orthostasis - CORRECT ANSWER - D


An antidepressant that may be dangerous in overdose is
A. Mirtazapine
B. Amitriptyline
C. Fluoxetine
D. Escitalopram - CORRECT ANSWER - B

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