ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored
Exam 2025/2026 – Actual Exam
Questions with Verified Answers &
Expert Rationales | Graded A+
This comprehensive A+ study guide for the 2025/2026 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam
(including NGN formats like case studies, bow-tie items, and select-all-that-apply) draws from
verified exam banks, focusing on key areas: pharmacokinetics, drug classifications, safe
administration, dosage calculations, adverse effects, and patient education. Over 100 questions
are compiled from high-yield sources, with correct answers in red and detailed expert rationales
for remediation. Use this to target weak areas—aim for 90%+ on practice runs.
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Drug Administration (Questions 1-20)
Question 1: A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The
medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to
administer this medication? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Answer: A) One Rationale: Medications with long half-lives (e.g., phenobarbital) remain at
therapeutic levels between doses for extended periods, allowing once-daily administration to
maintain steady-state plasma concentrations and minimize toxicity risks.
Question 2: A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence
medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the
following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication
dosages? A. Client age under 50 years B. Client with liver impairment C. Client with high body
mass index D. Client taking no other medications
Answer: B) Client with liver impairment Rationale: Liver impairment reduces drug
metabolism via cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to prolonged half-life and increased risk of
accumulation/toxicity; lower doses prevent adverse effects like sedation or hepatotoxicity.
Question 3: A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Have the client lie on her side. B. Ask
the client to look up at the ceiling. C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye. D.
Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close
her eye gently after instillation.
, Answer: B, D, E Rationale: Looking up prevents corneal contact and reduces discomfort (B);
central sac placement ensures even distribution (D); gentle closure distributes the drop without
expulsion (E). Avoid side-lying (A) or forceful blinking (C) to prevent contamination or loss.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of
the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration? A. PT/INR B.
aPTT C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist; PT/INR monitors
anticoagulation efficacy and bleeding risk. Therapeutic INR is 2-3 for most indications; hold if
>3 to avoid hemorrhage.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following situations requires
an incident report? A. Client experiences a seizure. B. A client vomits after receiving an oral
medication. C. A client receives their insulin 1 hour before scheduled. D. A client receives their
meal tray 20 min late.
Answer: C) A client receives their insulin 1 hour before scheduled Rationale: Medication
timing errors (e.g., early insulin) risk hypoglycemia; incident reports document for quality
improvement and legal protection. Seizures or vomiting may be expected; meal delays are minor.
Question 6: Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse
over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the
manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 22 gtt/min Rationale: Volume rate = 100 mL / 45 min = 2.22 mL/min. Drops/min =
(2.22 mL/min × 10 gtt/mL) = 22.2 gtt/min ≈ 22. Ensures therapeutic levels without
nephrotoxicity from rapid infusion.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus.
The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9%
NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 200 mL/hr Rationale: Infusion rate = (100 mL / 30 min) × 60 min/hr = 200 mL/hr.
Prevents phlebitis and ensures even antibiotic distribution.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount
available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 8 mL Rationale: Dose = 80 mg / 10 mg/mL = 8 mL. Monitor for
ototoxicity/hypokalemia; loop diuretics like furosemide act on distal tubule.
Exam 2025/2026 – Actual Exam
Questions with Verified Answers &
Expert Rationales | Graded A+
This comprehensive A+ study guide for the 2025/2026 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam
(including NGN formats like case studies, bow-tie items, and select-all-that-apply) draws from
verified exam banks, focusing on key areas: pharmacokinetics, drug classifications, safe
administration, dosage calculations, adverse effects, and patient education. Over 100 questions
are compiled from high-yield sources, with correct answers in red and detailed expert rationales
for remediation. Use this to target weak areas—aim for 90%+ on practice runs.
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Drug Administration (Questions 1-20)
Question 1: A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The
medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to
administer this medication? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Answer: A) One Rationale: Medications with long half-lives (e.g., phenobarbital) remain at
therapeutic levels between doses for extended periods, allowing once-daily administration to
maintain steady-state plasma concentrations and minimize toxicity risks.
Question 2: A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence
medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the
following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication
dosages? A. Client age under 50 years B. Client with liver impairment C. Client with high body
mass index D. Client taking no other medications
Answer: B) Client with liver impairment Rationale: Liver impairment reduces drug
metabolism via cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to prolonged half-life and increased risk of
accumulation/toxicity; lower doses prevent adverse effects like sedation or hepatotoxicity.
Question 3: A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Have the client lie on her side. B. Ask
the client to look up at the ceiling. C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye. D.
Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close
her eye gently after instillation.
, Answer: B, D, E Rationale: Looking up prevents corneal contact and reduces discomfort (B);
central sac placement ensures even distribution (D); gentle closure distributes the drop without
expulsion (E). Avoid side-lying (A) or forceful blinking (C) to prevent contamination or loss.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of
the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration? A. PT/INR B.
aPTT C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist; PT/INR monitors
anticoagulation efficacy and bleeding risk. Therapeutic INR is 2-3 for most indications; hold if
>3 to avoid hemorrhage.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following situations requires
an incident report? A. Client experiences a seizure. B. A client vomits after receiving an oral
medication. C. A client receives their insulin 1 hour before scheduled. D. A client receives their
meal tray 20 min late.
Answer: C) A client receives their insulin 1 hour before scheduled Rationale: Medication
timing errors (e.g., early insulin) risk hypoglycemia; incident reports document for quality
improvement and legal protection. Seizures or vomiting may be expected; meal delays are minor.
Question 6: Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse
over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the
manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 22 gtt/min Rationale: Volume rate = 100 mL / 45 min = 2.22 mL/min. Drops/min =
(2.22 mL/min × 10 gtt/mL) = 22.2 gtt/min ≈ 22. Ensures therapeutic levels without
nephrotoxicity from rapid infusion.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus.
The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9%
NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 200 mL/hr Rationale: Infusion rate = (100 mL / 30 min) × 60 min/hr = 200 mL/hr.
Prevents phlebitis and ensures even antibiotic distribution.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount
available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Round to the nearest whole number.)
Answer: 8 mL Rationale: Dose = 80 mg / 10 mg/mL = 8 mL. Monitor for
ototoxicity/hypokalemia; loop diuretics like furosemide act on distal tubule.
