AS 121 Exam 6 Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2025/2026
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - Answers
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding
altimeter.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure
when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? - Answers Broadcast intentions when 10 miles
out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL
to, but does not include, - Answers 18,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots,
and the magnetic variation is 6° 30'E. - Answers 091°.
(Refer to Figure 25.) (Refer to area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67)
north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is - Answers 4,000 feet MSL
Refer to Figure 71.) (Refer to area 1.) Dubey Airport is - Answers a privately owned airport
restricted to use.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect
along IR 644? - Answers IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250
knots.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude
and 101°01'W longitude? - Answers Washburn.
(Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of
Shoshone County Airport - Answers 47°33'N - 116°11'W.
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport? -
Answers The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon
landing.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is -
Answers 123.0 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 26.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a - Answers military operations area
(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate
direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? - Answers 101°.
(Refer to Figure 70.) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4
NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance
, during the flight? - Answers 3,200 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? - Answers
Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
(Refer to Figure 25.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)? -
Answers 3,000
(Refer to Figure 51A.) What information should be entered into item 16, "Destination
Aerodrome," for a VFR day flight? - Answers The destination airport identifier code.
(Refer to Figure 20.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of
Currituck County Airport. - Answers 36°24'N - 76°01'W
(Refer to Figure 24.) (Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the
obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? - Answers 1,273 feet MSL
(Refer to Figure 23, Legend 1.) (Refer to area 3.) For information about glider operations at
Ridgeland Airport, refer to - Answers the Chart Supplement
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport? - Answers An
increase in ambient temperature
You have planned a cross-country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a
mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet
MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the
mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSL. Which of the following is the correct action to take? -
Answers Replan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude = 7,500 ft. Headwind = 8 kts. Temperature = 32°F. Runway = Hard surface -
Answers 1,004 ft
(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for
use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component? - Answers Runway 32.
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude
= 1,250 ft. Headwind = 8 kts. Temperature = Std - Answers 366feet
take off distance - Answers 1,750 1,925 ,1,150
(Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to
achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher
than standard. - Answers 21.0" Hg.
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density
altitude is - Answers Higher than standard
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - Answers
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding
altimeter.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure
when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? - Answers Broadcast intentions when 10 miles
out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL
to, but does not include, - Answers 18,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots,
and the magnetic variation is 6° 30'E. - Answers 091°.
(Refer to Figure 25.) (Refer to area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67)
north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is - Answers 4,000 feet MSL
Refer to Figure 71.) (Refer to area 1.) Dubey Airport is - Answers a privately owned airport
restricted to use.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect
along IR 644? - Answers IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250
knots.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude
and 101°01'W longitude? - Answers Washburn.
(Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of
Shoshone County Airport - Answers 47°33'N - 116°11'W.
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport? -
Answers The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon
landing.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is -
Answers 123.0 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 26.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a - Answers military operations area
(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate
direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? - Answers 101°.
(Refer to Figure 70.) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4
NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance
, during the flight? - Answers 3,200 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? - Answers
Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
(Refer to Figure 25.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)? -
Answers 3,000
(Refer to Figure 51A.) What information should be entered into item 16, "Destination
Aerodrome," for a VFR day flight? - Answers The destination airport identifier code.
(Refer to Figure 20.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of
Currituck County Airport. - Answers 36°24'N - 76°01'W
(Refer to Figure 24.) (Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the
obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? - Answers 1,273 feet MSL
(Refer to Figure 23, Legend 1.) (Refer to area 3.) For information about glider operations at
Ridgeland Airport, refer to - Answers the Chart Supplement
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport? - Answers An
increase in ambient temperature
You have planned a cross-country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a
mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet
MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the
mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSL. Which of the following is the correct action to take? -
Answers Replan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude = 7,500 ft. Headwind = 8 kts. Temperature = 32°F. Runway = Hard surface -
Answers 1,004 ft
(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for
use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component? - Answers Runway 32.
(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude
= 1,250 ft. Headwind = 8 kts. Temperature = Std - Answers 366feet
take off distance - Answers 1,750 1,925 ,1,150
(Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to
achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher
than standard. - Answers 21.0" Hg.
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density
altitude is - Answers Higher than standard
