EXAM 3 254 WITH 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS 2025
1. The nurse would call the primary care provider immediately for
which laboratory result?
1. Hgb = 16 g/dL for a male client
2. Hct = 22% for a female client
3. WBC = 9 × 103 /mL3
4. Platelets = 300 × 103 /mL3 correct answers >> Answer: 2.
Rationale: Option 2 is very low and can lead to death. The client's
red blood cells participate in oxygenation. Options 1, 3, and 4 are
within normal range and should not be reported to the primary
care provider.
2. A 78-year-old male client needs to complete a 24-hour urine
specimen. In planning his care, the nurse realizes that which
measure is most important? 1. Instruct the client to empty his
bladder and save this voiding to start the collection.
2. Instruct the client to use sterile individual containers to collect
the urine.
3. Post a sign stating "Save All Urine" in the bathroom.
4. Keep the urine specimen in the refrigerator. correct answers
>> Answer: 3. Rationale: Option 3 is the most important nursing
measure. This will inform the staff that the client is on a 24-hour
urine collection. Option 1 is not appropriate since the first voided
specimen is to be discarded. Option 2 is not an appropriate
nursing measure since the specimen container is clean not sterile,
and one container is needed—not individual containers. Option 4
is inappropriate because some 24-hour urine collections do not
require refrigeration.
,3. The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is
performed using indirect visualization? 1. Intravenous
pyelography (IVP)
2. Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)
3. Retrograde pyelography
4. Cystoscopy correct answers >> Answer: 2. Rationale: A
KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. This does not
require direct visualization. Option 1 is an IVP, an intravenous
pyelogram, which requires the injection of a contrast media.
Option 3 is a retrograde pyelography, which requires the injection
of a contrast media. Option 4 is a cystoscopy, which uses a
lighted instrument (cystoscope) inserted through the urethra,
resulting in direct visualization.
4. Which noninvasive procedure provides information about the
physiology or function of an organ?
1. Angiography
2. Computerized tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET) correct answers >>
Answer: 4. Rationale: This type of nuclear scan demonstrates the
ability of tissues to absorb the chemical to indicate the physiology
and function of an organ. Option 1 is an invasive procedure that
focuses on blood flow through an organ. Options 2 and 3 provide
information about density of tissue to help distinguish between
normal and abnormal tissue of an organ.
5. When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse should
take which action?
, 1. Assist the client to a right side-lying position after the
procedure.
2. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing.
3. Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation for several days
after the procedure.
4. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck
and knees. correct answers >> Answer: 3. Rationale: Bone
marrow aspiration includes deep penetration into soft tissue and
large bones such as the sternum and iliac crest. This penetration
can result in bleeding. The client should be observed for bleeding
in the days following the procedure. Option 1 is a nursing action
during a liver biopsy. Option 2 is a nursing action for a
thoracentesis, and Option 4 is a nursing action for a lumbar
puncture.
6. During an assessment, the nurse learns that the client has a
history of liver disease. Which diagnostic tests might be indicated
for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
2. Myoglobin
3. Cholesterol
4. Ammonia
5. Brain natriuretic peptide or B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
correct answers >> Answer: 1 and 4. Rationale: ALT is an
enzyme that contributes to protein and carbohydrate metabolism.
An increase in the enzyme indicates damage to the liver. The liver
contributes to the metabolism of protein, which results in the
production of ammonia. If the liver is damaged, the ammonia
level is increased. Options 2, 3, and 5 (myoglobin, cholesterol,
and BNP) are relevant for heart disease.
ANSWERS 2025
1. The nurse would call the primary care provider immediately for
which laboratory result?
1. Hgb = 16 g/dL for a male client
2. Hct = 22% for a female client
3. WBC = 9 × 103 /mL3
4. Platelets = 300 × 103 /mL3 correct answers >> Answer: 2.
Rationale: Option 2 is very low and can lead to death. The client's
red blood cells participate in oxygenation. Options 1, 3, and 4 are
within normal range and should not be reported to the primary
care provider.
2. A 78-year-old male client needs to complete a 24-hour urine
specimen. In planning his care, the nurse realizes that which
measure is most important? 1. Instruct the client to empty his
bladder and save this voiding to start the collection.
2. Instruct the client to use sterile individual containers to collect
the urine.
3. Post a sign stating "Save All Urine" in the bathroom.
4. Keep the urine specimen in the refrigerator. correct answers
>> Answer: 3. Rationale: Option 3 is the most important nursing
measure. This will inform the staff that the client is on a 24-hour
urine collection. Option 1 is not appropriate since the first voided
specimen is to be discarded. Option 2 is not an appropriate
nursing measure since the specimen container is clean not sterile,
and one container is needed—not individual containers. Option 4
is inappropriate because some 24-hour urine collections do not
require refrigeration.
,3. The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is
performed using indirect visualization? 1. Intravenous
pyelography (IVP)
2. Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)
3. Retrograde pyelography
4. Cystoscopy correct answers >> Answer: 2. Rationale: A
KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. This does not
require direct visualization. Option 1 is an IVP, an intravenous
pyelogram, which requires the injection of a contrast media.
Option 3 is a retrograde pyelography, which requires the injection
of a contrast media. Option 4 is a cystoscopy, which uses a
lighted instrument (cystoscope) inserted through the urethra,
resulting in direct visualization.
4. Which noninvasive procedure provides information about the
physiology or function of an organ?
1. Angiography
2. Computerized tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET) correct answers >>
Answer: 4. Rationale: This type of nuclear scan demonstrates the
ability of tissues to absorb the chemical to indicate the physiology
and function of an organ. Option 1 is an invasive procedure that
focuses on blood flow through an organ. Options 2 and 3 provide
information about density of tissue to help distinguish between
normal and abnormal tissue of an organ.
5. When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse should
take which action?
, 1. Assist the client to a right side-lying position after the
procedure.
2. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing.
3. Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation for several days
after the procedure.
4. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck
and knees. correct answers >> Answer: 3. Rationale: Bone
marrow aspiration includes deep penetration into soft tissue and
large bones such as the sternum and iliac crest. This penetration
can result in bleeding. The client should be observed for bleeding
in the days following the procedure. Option 1 is a nursing action
during a liver biopsy. Option 2 is a nursing action for a
thoracentesis, and Option 4 is a nursing action for a lumbar
puncture.
6. During an assessment, the nurse learns that the client has a
history of liver disease. Which diagnostic tests might be indicated
for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
2. Myoglobin
3. Cholesterol
4. Ammonia
5. Brain natriuretic peptide or B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
correct answers >> Answer: 1 and 4. Rationale: ALT is an
enzyme that contributes to protein and carbohydrate metabolism.
An increase in the enzyme indicates damage to the liver. The liver
contributes to the metabolism of protein, which results in the
production of ammonia. If the liver is damaged, the ammonia
level is increased. Options 2, 3, and 5 (myoglobin, cholesterol,
and BNP) are relevant for heart disease.
