DOD ARFF CDC 2026 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <RECENT VERSION>
1. What is the primary mission of ARFF?
A) To perform structural firefighting
B) To provide rescue and fire suppression capabilities at aircraft incidents
C) To provide emergency medical services on the flight line
D) To conduct aircraft maintenance
2. According to NFPA 403, what is the maximum response time for the first ARFF vehicle to
reach the midpoint of the farthest runway in optimal conditions?
A) 2 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 4 minutes
D) 5 minutes
3. The "Critical Rescue Area" is typically defined as what?
A) The entire airfield
B) The aircraft hangar and maintenance area
C) The fuselage area from the nose to the top of the vertical stabilizer and 50 feet (15 m) out
from the sides
D) The area 100 feet from the wingtips
4. What is the most effective extinguishing agent for a Class B fire involving flammable
liquids?
A) Water
B) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
C) Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
D) Dry Chemical (PKP)
5. The acronym "PASS" used for SCBA stands for:
A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B) Positive Air Supply System
,C) Pull, Activate, Sweep, Spray
D) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
6. What is the primary hazard associated with a Wheel Fire?
A) Fuselage rupture
B) Tire explosion or rim failure
C) Electrical shock
D) Fuselage fire
7. The minimum required quantity of ARFF vehicles and agents is determined by the airport's:
A) Number of based aircraft
B) Airfield Index
C) Total land area
D) Number of passengers per day
8. A typical ARFF vehicle's turret nozzle is capable of producing which two types of foam
streams?
A) Fog and Straight Stream
B) Bounce-off and Rain-down
C) Straight Stream and Fog Pattern
D) Roll-on and Aspirated
9. What is the primary purpose of applying foam to a burning flammable liquid?
A) To cool the fuel below its ignition temperature
B) To separate the fuel from the oxygen
C) To dilute the fuel
D) To chemically alter the fuel
10. A "Hot Brake" incident involves what specific procedure?
A) Immediate application of water
B) Letting the wheel assembly cool naturally while monitoring with a TIC
C) Using a CO2 extinguisher to cool the brakes
D) Disassembling the wheel immediately
11. Which agency is typically responsible for establishing the Incident Command System (ICS)
at a military airfield emergency?
A) The Security Forces Squadron
B) The first arriving ARFF unit
C) The Air Traffic Control Tower
D) The Medical Group
,12. What does the "R" in "RECEO-VS" stand for?
A) Rescue
B) Response
C) Rehab
D) Report
13. The recommended application rate for AFFF on a hydrocarbon fuel spill fire is:
A) 0.1 gpm/ft²
B) 0.16 gpm/ft²
C) 0.5 gpm/ft²
D) 1.0 gpm/ft²
14. A "Frothover" is a phenomenon associated with what type of fire?
A) Electrical Transformer Fire
B) Magnesium Fire
C) Burning Crude Oil in a Tank
D) Wheel Well Fire
15. What is the primary function of a Stang nozzle?
A) For interior attack only
B) To provide a piercing application for aircraft skin and fuel tanks
C) For roof ventilation
D) To apply dry chemical agent
16. When approaching an aircraft incident, the recommended initial approach angle is from:
A) Downwind
B) The rear of the aircraft
C) Upwind and uphill
D) Directly from the side
17. What is the primary danger when fighting a fire in a composite material aircraft structure?
A) Extreme heat
B) Toxic fumes from pyrolysis
C) Intense radiation
D) Rapid collapse
18. The "Crisis Phase" of an aircraft emergency is defined as:
A) The time before the aircraft incident occurs
B) The time from when the aircraft stops until the fire is out and primary rescue is complete
, C) The investigation phase after the incident
D) The time when the aircraft is declaring an emergency
19. Which type of fire extinguisher is best suited for a Class C (energized electrical) fire?
A) Water
B) AFFF
C) CO2 or Dry Chemical
D) Wet Chemical
20. What is the purpose of a "Rapid Intervention Vehicle (RIV)" or "Fast Attack Vehicle"?
A) To transport command staff
B) To provide a quick, initial attack and rescue capability
C) To refill other ARFF vehicles with foam
D) For perimeter security
21. A "BLEVE" stands for:
A) Burning Liquid Explosive Vapor Emission
B) Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion
C) Basic Liquid Evaporative Volatility Event
D) Blast Level Extreme Volatility Effect
22. What is the minimum recommended foam concentrate supply for an Index A airfield?
A) 500 gallons
B) 1,000 gallons
C) 1,500 gallons
D) 3,000 gallons
23. During a rescue operation, the first priority is to:
A) Extinguish the fire
B) Stabilize the aircraft
C) Rescue able-bodied persons closest to the exits
D) Rescue the most threatened victims
24. What does the "S" in "SAD CHALETS" stand for, used for size-up?
A) Safety
B) Salvage
C) Safety & Situation
D) Systems
25. A "Ditching" is defined as a:
A) Controlled emergency landing on water
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <RECENT VERSION>
1. What is the primary mission of ARFF?
A) To perform structural firefighting
B) To provide rescue and fire suppression capabilities at aircraft incidents
C) To provide emergency medical services on the flight line
D) To conduct aircraft maintenance
2. According to NFPA 403, what is the maximum response time for the first ARFF vehicle to
reach the midpoint of the farthest runway in optimal conditions?
A) 2 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 4 minutes
D) 5 minutes
3. The "Critical Rescue Area" is typically defined as what?
A) The entire airfield
B) The aircraft hangar and maintenance area
C) The fuselage area from the nose to the top of the vertical stabilizer and 50 feet (15 m) out
from the sides
D) The area 100 feet from the wingtips
4. What is the most effective extinguishing agent for a Class B fire involving flammable
liquids?
A) Water
B) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
C) Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
D) Dry Chemical (PKP)
5. The acronym "PASS" used for SCBA stands for:
A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B) Positive Air Supply System
,C) Pull, Activate, Sweep, Spray
D) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
6. What is the primary hazard associated with a Wheel Fire?
A) Fuselage rupture
B) Tire explosion or rim failure
C) Electrical shock
D) Fuselage fire
7. The minimum required quantity of ARFF vehicles and agents is determined by the airport's:
A) Number of based aircraft
B) Airfield Index
C) Total land area
D) Number of passengers per day
8. A typical ARFF vehicle's turret nozzle is capable of producing which two types of foam
streams?
A) Fog and Straight Stream
B) Bounce-off and Rain-down
C) Straight Stream and Fog Pattern
D) Roll-on and Aspirated
9. What is the primary purpose of applying foam to a burning flammable liquid?
A) To cool the fuel below its ignition temperature
B) To separate the fuel from the oxygen
C) To dilute the fuel
D) To chemically alter the fuel
10. A "Hot Brake" incident involves what specific procedure?
A) Immediate application of water
B) Letting the wheel assembly cool naturally while monitoring with a TIC
C) Using a CO2 extinguisher to cool the brakes
D) Disassembling the wheel immediately
11. Which agency is typically responsible for establishing the Incident Command System (ICS)
at a military airfield emergency?
A) The Security Forces Squadron
B) The first arriving ARFF unit
C) The Air Traffic Control Tower
D) The Medical Group
,12. What does the "R" in "RECEO-VS" stand for?
A) Rescue
B) Response
C) Rehab
D) Report
13. The recommended application rate for AFFF on a hydrocarbon fuel spill fire is:
A) 0.1 gpm/ft²
B) 0.16 gpm/ft²
C) 0.5 gpm/ft²
D) 1.0 gpm/ft²
14. A "Frothover" is a phenomenon associated with what type of fire?
A) Electrical Transformer Fire
B) Magnesium Fire
C) Burning Crude Oil in a Tank
D) Wheel Well Fire
15. What is the primary function of a Stang nozzle?
A) For interior attack only
B) To provide a piercing application for aircraft skin and fuel tanks
C) For roof ventilation
D) To apply dry chemical agent
16. When approaching an aircraft incident, the recommended initial approach angle is from:
A) Downwind
B) The rear of the aircraft
C) Upwind and uphill
D) Directly from the side
17. What is the primary danger when fighting a fire in a composite material aircraft structure?
A) Extreme heat
B) Toxic fumes from pyrolysis
C) Intense radiation
D) Rapid collapse
18. The "Crisis Phase" of an aircraft emergency is defined as:
A) The time before the aircraft incident occurs
B) The time from when the aircraft stops until the fire is out and primary rescue is complete
, C) The investigation phase after the incident
D) The time when the aircraft is declaring an emergency
19. Which type of fire extinguisher is best suited for a Class C (energized electrical) fire?
A) Water
B) AFFF
C) CO2 or Dry Chemical
D) Wet Chemical
20. What is the purpose of a "Rapid Intervention Vehicle (RIV)" or "Fast Attack Vehicle"?
A) To transport command staff
B) To provide a quick, initial attack and rescue capability
C) To refill other ARFF vehicles with foam
D) For perimeter security
21. A "BLEVE" stands for:
A) Burning Liquid Explosive Vapor Emission
B) Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion
C) Basic Liquid Evaporative Volatility Event
D) Blast Level Extreme Volatility Effect
22. What is the minimum recommended foam concentrate supply for an Index A airfield?
A) 500 gallons
B) 1,000 gallons
C) 1,500 gallons
D) 3,000 gallons
23. During a rescue operation, the first priority is to:
A) Extinguish the fire
B) Stabilize the aircraft
C) Rescue able-bodied persons closest to the exits
D) Rescue the most threatened victims
24. What does the "S" in "SAD CHALETS" stand for, used for size-up?
A) Safety
B) Salvage
C) Safety & Situation
D) Systems
25. A "Ditching" is defined as a:
A) Controlled emergency landing on water
