NR 603 WEEK 1 Most Recent exam COMPLETE (2026)
EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) (Latest
Update 2026) Graded A+
A 75-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle accident and strikes his
forehead on the windshield. He complains of neck pain and severe burning in his
shoulders and arms. His physical examination reveals weakness of his upper
extremities. What type of spinal cord injury does this patient have?
A anterior cord syndrome
B central cord syndrome
C Brown-Séquard syndrome
D complete cord transection
E cauda equina syndrome
ANS: B - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Central Cord Syndrome
the central cord syndrome involves loss of motor function that is more severe in
the upper extremities than in the lower extremities, and is more severe in the
hands. There is typically hyperesthesia over the shoulders and arms. Anterior
cord syndrome presents with paraplegia or quadriplegia, loss of lateral
spinothalamic function with preservation of posterior column function. Brown-
Séquard syndrome consists of weakness and loss of posterior column function on
one side of the body distal to the lesion with contralateral loss of lateral
spinothalamic function one to two levels below the lesion. Complete cord
transection would affect motor and sensory function distal to the lesion. Cauda
equina syndrome typically presents as low back pain with radiculopathy.
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EXAMPREPMASTER
,A 37-year-old man fell from a ladder as he finished hanging the Christmas lights
on his house. The right side of his head hit the alley cement, and he lost
consciousness for about 1 minute; he woke up with a headache, but he had no
other complaints. A few hours later, the patient is brought to the emergency
room by his neighbor because of an intense headache, confusion, and left hand
hemiparesis. On examination, the patient has a bruise located over the right
temporal region, mydriasis, and right deviation of the right eye, papilledema,
and left extensor plantar response. An emergency CT scan of the head without
contrast reveals a lens-shaped hyper-density under the right temporal bone with
mass effect and edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer Choices
1 Epidural hematoma
2 Subdural hematoma
3 Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4 Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
5 Acute meningitis
ANS: 1 - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Epidural Hematoma
Epidural hematoma most often results from a traumatic tear of the middle
meningeal artery. Although a lucid interval ranging from minutes to hours
followed by altered mental status and focal deficits is typical for epidural
hematoma, this clinical picture is only encountered in up to 1/3 of the patients.
The collection of blood between the skull and dura mater causes an evident mass
effect with ophthalmic nerve palsy and the contralateral hemiparesis. Surgical
evacuation of the clot via burr holes is the treatment of choice.
Subdural hematoma results from a traumatic rupture of the bridging veins that
connect the cerebrum to the venous sinuses within the dura. This venous
hemorrhage will result in a gradual increase of the hematoma, with a progressive
clinical picture over days or weeks. The CT scan will show a concave, crescent-
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EXAMPREPMASTER
,shaped hyper-density compared to the convex, lens-shaped hyper-density in
epidural hematoma.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is the result of an aneurysm rupture; the most
common is the congenital berry aneurysm. The clinical picture is of a sudden,
severe headache with meningeal irritation. A CT scan will show blood in the
subarachnoid space, and a lumbar puncture will reveal xanthochromia CSF.
Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage is most likely caused by hypertension
complicated with Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms. The blood accumulates into the
brain substance and most commonly involves the basal ganglia.
Acute meningitis is not associated with trauma. Fever and signs of meningeal
irritation dominate the clinical picture. Lumbar puncture, indicated if there are
no focal neurological signs on clinical examination, will be the diagnostic
procedure. The CT scan of the patient presented in this case is characteristic for
epidural hematoma, and there is no indication for a lumbar punctu
A 31-year-old woman presents with a purpural rash covering her arms, legs, and
abdomen. She also has fever, chills, nausea, abdominal tenderness, tachycardia,
and generalized myalgias. Prior to the development of the rash, the patient noted
that she had a headache, cough, and sore throat. Laboratory studies were
positive for Gram-negative diplococci in the blood, along with thrombocytopenia
and an elevation in PMNs. Urinalysis showed blood, protein, and casts. Vital
signs are as follows: PB 92/66, P 96, RR 14, T 39. The patient denies any foreign
travel and does not have any sick contacts. However, she does work part time as
a nurse in a local hospital.
Question
The patient is diagnosed with Meningococcemia; she is admitted to the hospital
and placed in respiratory isolation. What major course of therapy should this
patient receive?
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EXAMPREPMASTER
, Answer Choices
1 Steroids
2 Supportive care
3 Antibiotics
4 Transfusion
5 Bacterici - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Antibiotics
Antibiotics are the treatment of choice for meningococcemia. The preferred drug
for active infection is penicillin G. For those allergic to penicillin,
chloramphenicol and cephalosporins (ie, cefotaxime, cefuroxime) may be used as
alternatives.
Patients will also receive supportive care, but antibiotic therapy must be initiated
quickly if the patient is to survive. Intensive care placement may be necessary if
organ failure is imminent. Ventilatory support, inotropic support, and IV fluids
are necessary in some. If adrenal insufficiency occurs, corticosteroid replacement
may be considered. A central venous line helps to provide large amounts of
volume expanders and inotropic medications for adequate tissue perfusion.
Steroids have not been shown to play a major role in the treatment of
meningococcemia. However, they have been used in addition to antibiotic
therapy. In the case of adrenal insufficiency, for example, steroid replacement
has been shown to be beneficial.
Transfusion does not generally play a major role in treatment. If the patient
suffers from a devastating coagulopathy, blood or blood products may be
replaced as necessary.
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EXAMPREPMASTER
EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) (Latest
Update 2026) Graded A+
A 75-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle accident and strikes his
forehead on the windshield. He complains of neck pain and severe burning in his
shoulders and arms. His physical examination reveals weakness of his upper
extremities. What type of spinal cord injury does this patient have?
A anterior cord syndrome
B central cord syndrome
C Brown-Séquard syndrome
D complete cord transection
E cauda equina syndrome
ANS: B - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Central Cord Syndrome
the central cord syndrome involves loss of motor function that is more severe in
the upper extremities than in the lower extremities, and is more severe in the
hands. There is typically hyperesthesia over the shoulders and arms. Anterior
cord syndrome presents with paraplegia or quadriplegia, loss of lateral
spinothalamic function with preservation of posterior column function. Brown-
Séquard syndrome consists of weakness and loss of posterior column function on
one side of the body distal to the lesion with contralateral loss of lateral
spinothalamic function one to two levels below the lesion. Complete cord
transection would affect motor and sensory function distal to the lesion. Cauda
equina syndrome typically presents as low back pain with radiculopathy.
1
Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
,A 37-year-old man fell from a ladder as he finished hanging the Christmas lights
on his house. The right side of his head hit the alley cement, and he lost
consciousness for about 1 minute; he woke up with a headache, but he had no
other complaints. A few hours later, the patient is brought to the emergency
room by his neighbor because of an intense headache, confusion, and left hand
hemiparesis. On examination, the patient has a bruise located over the right
temporal region, mydriasis, and right deviation of the right eye, papilledema,
and left extensor plantar response. An emergency CT scan of the head without
contrast reveals a lens-shaped hyper-density under the right temporal bone with
mass effect and edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer Choices
1 Epidural hematoma
2 Subdural hematoma
3 Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4 Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
5 Acute meningitis
ANS: 1 - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Epidural Hematoma
Epidural hematoma most often results from a traumatic tear of the middle
meningeal artery. Although a lucid interval ranging from minutes to hours
followed by altered mental status and focal deficits is typical for epidural
hematoma, this clinical picture is only encountered in up to 1/3 of the patients.
The collection of blood between the skull and dura mater causes an evident mass
effect with ophthalmic nerve palsy and the contralateral hemiparesis. Surgical
evacuation of the clot via burr holes is the treatment of choice.
Subdural hematoma results from a traumatic rupture of the bridging veins that
connect the cerebrum to the venous sinuses within the dura. This venous
hemorrhage will result in a gradual increase of the hematoma, with a progressive
clinical picture over days or weeks. The CT scan will show a concave, crescent-
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Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
,shaped hyper-density compared to the convex, lens-shaped hyper-density in
epidural hematoma.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is the result of an aneurysm rupture; the most
common is the congenital berry aneurysm. The clinical picture is of a sudden,
severe headache with meningeal irritation. A CT scan will show blood in the
subarachnoid space, and a lumbar puncture will reveal xanthochromia CSF.
Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage is most likely caused by hypertension
complicated with Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms. The blood accumulates into the
brain substance and most commonly involves the basal ganglia.
Acute meningitis is not associated with trauma. Fever and signs of meningeal
irritation dominate the clinical picture. Lumbar puncture, indicated if there are
no focal neurological signs on clinical examination, will be the diagnostic
procedure. The CT scan of the patient presented in this case is characteristic for
epidural hematoma, and there is no indication for a lumbar punctu
A 31-year-old woman presents with a purpural rash covering her arms, legs, and
abdomen. She also has fever, chills, nausea, abdominal tenderness, tachycardia,
and generalized myalgias. Prior to the development of the rash, the patient noted
that she had a headache, cough, and sore throat. Laboratory studies were
positive for Gram-negative diplococci in the blood, along with thrombocytopenia
and an elevation in PMNs. Urinalysis showed blood, protein, and casts. Vital
signs are as follows: PB 92/66, P 96, RR 14, T 39. The patient denies any foreign
travel and does not have any sick contacts. However, she does work part time as
a nurse in a local hospital.
Question
The patient is diagnosed with Meningococcemia; she is admitted to the hospital
and placed in respiratory isolation. What major course of therapy should this
patient receive?
3
Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
, Answer Choices
1 Steroids
2 Supportive care
3 Antibiotics
4 Transfusion
5 Bacterici - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔✔✔✔ Antibiotics
Antibiotics are the treatment of choice for meningococcemia. The preferred drug
for active infection is penicillin G. For those allergic to penicillin,
chloramphenicol and cephalosporins (ie, cefotaxime, cefuroxime) may be used as
alternatives.
Patients will also receive supportive care, but antibiotic therapy must be initiated
quickly if the patient is to survive. Intensive care placement may be necessary if
organ failure is imminent. Ventilatory support, inotropic support, and IV fluids
are necessary in some. If adrenal insufficiency occurs, corticosteroid replacement
may be considered. A central venous line helps to provide large amounts of
volume expanders and inotropic medications for adequate tissue perfusion.
Steroids have not been shown to play a major role in the treatment of
meningococcemia. However, they have been used in addition to antibiotic
therapy. In the case of adrenal insufficiency, for example, steroid replacement
has been shown to be beneficial.
Transfusion does not generally play a major role in treatment. If the patient
suffers from a devastating coagulopathy, blood or blood products may be
replaced as necessary.
4
Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
