Four Major subgroups of Late Adulthood - answer-65 - 74 young old
75 - 84 middle old
85 - 99 old old
100 and older elite old
How do you treat pleural effusion? - answer-thoracentesis;
injection of a sclerosing agent into the pleural cavity;
open surgical drainage
How does a pulmonary embolism develop? - answer-a blood-borne substance
lodges in a branch of the pulmonary artery and obstructs the flow
How is the common cold spread? - answer-fingers;
coughing and sneezing;
the nasal mucosa and conjunctival surface of the eyes are the most common portals
of entry for the virus
How is the ventilation distributed in the lungs? - answer-the top of the lungs are more
distended and less compliant whereas the lower lung is small and highly compliant
How long is the incubation period for acute respiratory syndrome? - answer-4-6 days
What are central chemoreceptors responsive to? - answer-increased H+ in the brain
ECF;
increased PaCO2;
"hypercarbic drive"
What are common ABG results of emphysema? - answer-pO2- 80;
O2 sat- 91% (low);
pCO2- 33 (low)- breathing rapid and deeply to get more oxygen in
HCO3- 25
pH- 7.46 (high)
What are elastic forces? - answer-lungs recoil due to elastin, collagen, fibrin
What are isotonic fluid volume disorders (extracellular fluid volume disorders)? -
answer-saline imbalances;
because sodium is confined to the extracellular compartment (not in the cell), loss or
gain of saline (and water) does not affect the intracellular compartment
What are lymphatic channels? - answer-absorb proteins, fats, plasma, and cells from
the interstitial fluid and return to the circulatory system;
,blockage causes increased interstitial osmotic pressure
What are normal levels from a urinalysis? - answer-pH (acidic);
protein (neg);
glucose (neg);
ketones (neg);
RBC (<5 cells per HPF);
nitrites (neg);
leukocyte esterase (neg);
leukocytes (<5 cells per HPF);
casts (neg)
Lifestyle and Practice to Promote Wellness older adults - answer-Yearly flu vaccine
pneumococcal vaccine
Shingles vaccine
tetanus and booster every 10 years
wear seat belts
alcohol in moderation
avoid smoking
smoke detectors
prevent falls - waxed floors and scattered rugs
medications as prescribed
avoid OTC medications unless primary care phyisican directs
Yearly physicial
regular exercise
socialization
reminisce
Common health Issues and Concerns older adults - answer-Decreased nutrition and
hydration
Decreased mobility
Stress and loss
Accidents - falls most common/MVA
Drug use and misuse
Mental health/cognition problems (including substance abuse)
Elder neglect and abuse
GFTT ( Geriatric Failure To Thrive) Complex Syndrome - answer-Under nutrition
Impaired mobility
Depression
Cognitive impairment
Depression older adults - answer-Most common mental health/behavioral health
problem among older adults.
Use Geriatric Depression Scale form
Mood disorder having cognitive, affective, physical manifestations
Primary (lack of neurotransmitters)
Secondary or situational
,Dementia older adults - answer-slowly progresses
generally chronic
intellectual impairment
Most common Alzheimer's
Multi-infarct dementia, the second most common resulting from a vascular disorder
Delirium older adults - answer-Acute and fluctuating onset
results from an unfamiliar place
Symptoms - inattentiveness, disorganized thinking, and altered level of
consciousness
Nurse's role in Rehab - answer-Advocate for the patient and family
Create therapeutic rehab milieu
provide whole person patient-centered care
Collaborate with healthcare team for patient outcome and develop care plan
Communicate with effectively with all members of the health care team, patient and
family
Evaluate effectiveness of plan of care for the patient and family
Use Braden scale - skin break down risk
Safe Patient Handing and Mobility (SPHM) - answer--Maintain a wide, stable base
with your feet
-Put the bed at the correct height - waist level while providing direct care and hip
level when moving patients
- Keep the patient or work directly in front of you to prevent your spine from rotating
- Keep the patient as close to your body as possible to prevent reaching
walker - assisted and cane - assisted procedure - answer-- Apply a transfer belt
around patients waist
- guide patient to a standing position
- remind patient to place both hands on the walker
- ensure that the patient's body is well balanced
walker teaching - answer-- lift the walker
- move the walker about 2 feet forward and set it down on all legs
-while resting on the walker, take small steps
- check balance
- repeat sequence
cane teaching - answer-- be sure cane is at the height of the patients wrist when the
arm is placed at his or her side
- remind patient to place his or her strong hand on cane
- ensure that the patient's body is well balanced
- move the cane and weaker leg forward at the same time
- move the stronger leg one step forward
- check balance and repeat the sequence
Adaptive equipment - answer-buttonhook
extended shoehorn
, plate guard and spork
gel pad
foam buildups
hook and loop fasteners
long-handled reacher
elastic shoelaces or velcro shoe closure
SCIP infection - 1 - answer-Prophylactic antibiotic received within one hour prior to
surgical incision (to establish bactericidal blood and tissue levels by the time the
surgical incision is made)
SCIP infection - 2 - answer-Prophylactic antibiotic selection for surgical patients
(increased risk for surgical infections)
SCIP infection - 3 - answer-Prophylactic Antibiotics discontinued within 24 hours
after surgery end time (provides benefit without risk)
SCIP infection - 4 - answer-Cardiac surgery patients with controlled 6 am
postoperative blood glucose (cardiac patients only) To avoid hyperglycemia
SCIP infection - 6 - answer-Surgery patients with appropriate hair removal (removal
is performed with electric clippers or chemical depilatories) to avoid skin abrasions
and increase risk of surgical site infections
SCIP infection - 9 - answer-Urinary catheter removed on postoperative day 1 or
postoperative day 2 with day of surgery being day zero ( to avoid urinary tract
infections)
SCIP infection - 10 - answer-Surgery patients with preoperative temperature
management (prevent prolonged hyperthermia, which is associated with wound
healing, serious cardiac complications, altered drug metabolism, coagulation
problems, and higher surgical infections.
SCIP CARD - 2 - answer-Surgery patients on beta-blocker therapy prior to arrival
who received a beta-blocker during the perioperative period ( receive beta-blocker
prior and continue immediately after surgery)
SCIP Venous Thromboembolism - 1 - answer-Surgical patients with recommended
venous thromboembolism prophylaxis ordered (reduce complications from
postoperative VTE)
SCIP Venous Thromboembolism - 2 - answer-Surgery Patients who received
appropriate Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis within 24 hours of prior to surgery
to 24 hours after surgery ( reduce complications from postoperative VTE particularly
among patients undergoing the types of surgeries in which the risk was highest
Chapter 24 - skin layers - answer-- Epidermis
- dermis
75 - 84 middle old
85 - 99 old old
100 and older elite old
How do you treat pleural effusion? - answer-thoracentesis;
injection of a sclerosing agent into the pleural cavity;
open surgical drainage
How does a pulmonary embolism develop? - answer-a blood-borne substance
lodges in a branch of the pulmonary artery and obstructs the flow
How is the common cold spread? - answer-fingers;
coughing and sneezing;
the nasal mucosa and conjunctival surface of the eyes are the most common portals
of entry for the virus
How is the ventilation distributed in the lungs? - answer-the top of the lungs are more
distended and less compliant whereas the lower lung is small and highly compliant
How long is the incubation period for acute respiratory syndrome? - answer-4-6 days
What are central chemoreceptors responsive to? - answer-increased H+ in the brain
ECF;
increased PaCO2;
"hypercarbic drive"
What are common ABG results of emphysema? - answer-pO2- 80;
O2 sat- 91% (low);
pCO2- 33 (low)- breathing rapid and deeply to get more oxygen in
HCO3- 25
pH- 7.46 (high)
What are elastic forces? - answer-lungs recoil due to elastin, collagen, fibrin
What are isotonic fluid volume disorders (extracellular fluid volume disorders)? -
answer-saline imbalances;
because sodium is confined to the extracellular compartment (not in the cell), loss or
gain of saline (and water) does not affect the intracellular compartment
What are lymphatic channels? - answer-absorb proteins, fats, plasma, and cells from
the interstitial fluid and return to the circulatory system;
,blockage causes increased interstitial osmotic pressure
What are normal levels from a urinalysis? - answer-pH (acidic);
protein (neg);
glucose (neg);
ketones (neg);
RBC (<5 cells per HPF);
nitrites (neg);
leukocyte esterase (neg);
leukocytes (<5 cells per HPF);
casts (neg)
Lifestyle and Practice to Promote Wellness older adults - answer-Yearly flu vaccine
pneumococcal vaccine
Shingles vaccine
tetanus and booster every 10 years
wear seat belts
alcohol in moderation
avoid smoking
smoke detectors
prevent falls - waxed floors and scattered rugs
medications as prescribed
avoid OTC medications unless primary care phyisican directs
Yearly physicial
regular exercise
socialization
reminisce
Common health Issues and Concerns older adults - answer-Decreased nutrition and
hydration
Decreased mobility
Stress and loss
Accidents - falls most common/MVA
Drug use and misuse
Mental health/cognition problems (including substance abuse)
Elder neglect and abuse
GFTT ( Geriatric Failure To Thrive) Complex Syndrome - answer-Under nutrition
Impaired mobility
Depression
Cognitive impairment
Depression older adults - answer-Most common mental health/behavioral health
problem among older adults.
Use Geriatric Depression Scale form
Mood disorder having cognitive, affective, physical manifestations
Primary (lack of neurotransmitters)
Secondary or situational
,Dementia older adults - answer-slowly progresses
generally chronic
intellectual impairment
Most common Alzheimer's
Multi-infarct dementia, the second most common resulting from a vascular disorder
Delirium older adults - answer-Acute and fluctuating onset
results from an unfamiliar place
Symptoms - inattentiveness, disorganized thinking, and altered level of
consciousness
Nurse's role in Rehab - answer-Advocate for the patient and family
Create therapeutic rehab milieu
provide whole person patient-centered care
Collaborate with healthcare team for patient outcome and develop care plan
Communicate with effectively with all members of the health care team, patient and
family
Evaluate effectiveness of plan of care for the patient and family
Use Braden scale - skin break down risk
Safe Patient Handing and Mobility (SPHM) - answer--Maintain a wide, stable base
with your feet
-Put the bed at the correct height - waist level while providing direct care and hip
level when moving patients
- Keep the patient or work directly in front of you to prevent your spine from rotating
- Keep the patient as close to your body as possible to prevent reaching
walker - assisted and cane - assisted procedure - answer-- Apply a transfer belt
around patients waist
- guide patient to a standing position
- remind patient to place both hands on the walker
- ensure that the patient's body is well balanced
walker teaching - answer-- lift the walker
- move the walker about 2 feet forward and set it down on all legs
-while resting on the walker, take small steps
- check balance
- repeat sequence
cane teaching - answer-- be sure cane is at the height of the patients wrist when the
arm is placed at his or her side
- remind patient to place his or her strong hand on cane
- ensure that the patient's body is well balanced
- move the cane and weaker leg forward at the same time
- move the stronger leg one step forward
- check balance and repeat the sequence
Adaptive equipment - answer-buttonhook
extended shoehorn
, plate guard and spork
gel pad
foam buildups
hook and loop fasteners
long-handled reacher
elastic shoelaces or velcro shoe closure
SCIP infection - 1 - answer-Prophylactic antibiotic received within one hour prior to
surgical incision (to establish bactericidal blood and tissue levels by the time the
surgical incision is made)
SCIP infection - 2 - answer-Prophylactic antibiotic selection for surgical patients
(increased risk for surgical infections)
SCIP infection - 3 - answer-Prophylactic Antibiotics discontinued within 24 hours
after surgery end time (provides benefit without risk)
SCIP infection - 4 - answer-Cardiac surgery patients with controlled 6 am
postoperative blood glucose (cardiac patients only) To avoid hyperglycemia
SCIP infection - 6 - answer-Surgery patients with appropriate hair removal (removal
is performed with electric clippers or chemical depilatories) to avoid skin abrasions
and increase risk of surgical site infections
SCIP infection - 9 - answer-Urinary catheter removed on postoperative day 1 or
postoperative day 2 with day of surgery being day zero ( to avoid urinary tract
infections)
SCIP infection - 10 - answer-Surgery patients with preoperative temperature
management (prevent prolonged hyperthermia, which is associated with wound
healing, serious cardiac complications, altered drug metabolism, coagulation
problems, and higher surgical infections.
SCIP CARD - 2 - answer-Surgery patients on beta-blocker therapy prior to arrival
who received a beta-blocker during the perioperative period ( receive beta-blocker
prior and continue immediately after surgery)
SCIP Venous Thromboembolism - 1 - answer-Surgical patients with recommended
venous thromboembolism prophylaxis ordered (reduce complications from
postoperative VTE)
SCIP Venous Thromboembolism - 2 - answer-Surgery Patients who received
appropriate Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis within 24 hours of prior to surgery
to 24 hours after surgery ( reduce complications from postoperative VTE particularly
among patients undergoing the types of surgeries in which the risk was highest
Chapter 24 - skin layers - answer-- Epidermis
- dermis
