CLEET Oklahoma Phase I & II Unarmed Security Guard Exam Test Questions with 100% Verified ANSWERs.

1. What is the primary responsibility of an unarmed security guard? A) To make arrests for any crime they witness B) To act as a public relations representative for the client C) To observe and report incidents and deter criminal activity D) To carry a weapon for the protection of the property ANSWER: C) To observe and report incidents and deter criminal activity 2. A security guard's authority is primarily derived from: A) The United States Constitution B) The property rights of the employer/client C) The local police department D) Their security company's policy manual ANSWER: B) The property rights of the employer/client 3. The "Use of Force Continuum" is a guideline that helps an officer determine: A) The appropriate level of force to use in a given situation B) How many hours they can work in a week C) What type of uniform to wear D) When to call for backup ANSWER: A) The appropriate level of force to use in a given situation 4. When approaching a vehicle during a patrol, a security guard should ideally position themselves: A) Directly in front of the driver's side door B) To the rear of the vehicle, out of the driver's mirror view C) On the driver's side, but slightly behind the driver's door pillar D) Directly next to the passenger window ANSWER: C) On the driver's side, but slightly behind the driver's door pillar 5. Which of the following is considered the most important sense for a security guard? A) Taste B) Hearing C) Sight D) Smell ANSWER: C) Sight 6. The term "de-escalation" refers to: A) Using greater force to control a subject quickly B) Tactics used to reduce the intensity of a conflict C) Escalating a situation to get a supervisor involved D) Immediately arresting a non-compliant person ANSWER: B) Tactics used to reduce the intensity of a conflict 7. A security guard discovers an unlocked door at 2:00 AM during their patrol. Their first action should be to: A) Ignore it and continue the patrol B) Secure the door and immediately notify their supervisor C) Wait inside the door to see if anyone enters D) Leave it unlocked for the morning shift to handle ANSWER: B) Secure the door and immediately notify their supervisor 8. When writing an incident report, which of the following is the most critical principle? A) Using complex legal terminology B) Stating your personal opinions about what happened C) Ensuring accuracy, completeness, and objectivity D) Writing it as quickly as possible, even if details are missing ANSWER: C) Ensuring accuracy, completeness, and objectivity 9. The "Four Ws" that should be included in every report are: A) Who, What, When, and Where B) Why, Where, Which, and When C) Who, What, Why, and Weapon D) Where, When, Why, and Witness ANSWER: A) Who, What, When, and Where 10. A security guard's power to detain a person is: A) The same as a police officer's power to arrest B) Limited to a "citizen's arrest" for a felony witnessed by the guard C) Unlimited on the property they are protecting D) Only permissible with written permission from the client ANSWER: B) Limited to a "citizen's arrest" for a felony witnessed by the guard 11. In Oklahoma, how long is the initial CLEET license for an unarmed security guard valid? A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 2 years D) 5 years ANSWER: C) 2 years 12. If a security guard observes a minor theft (a misdemeanor) that they did not witness, they should: A) Immediately detain the suspect B) Use physical force to recover the property C) Observe, report to law enforcement, and be a good witness D) Confront the suspect and demand the property back ANSWER: C) Observe, report to law enforcement, and be a good witness 13. Professional ethics for a security guard require: A) Sharing confidential information with friends B) Using their position for personal gain C) Maintaining confidentiality and integrity D) Always siding with the client, even if they are wrong ANSWER: C) Maintaining confidentiality and integrity 14. When communicating over the radio, a security guard should: A) Use codes that the public cannot understand B) Speak quickly to save time C) Be clear, concise, and professional D) Use slang to sound more approachable ANSWER: C) Be clear, concise, and professional 15. The primary purpose of a daily activity report (DAR) is to: A) Critique the performance of other guards B) Provide a formal record of all activities during a shift C) List personal complaints about the job D) Plan the next day's schedule ANSWER: B) Provide a formal record of all activities during a shift 16. When dealing with an angry or upset individual, a security guard should: A) Yell back to assert authority B) Remain calm and listen actively C) Turn their back and walk away D) Immediately threaten to detain them ANSWER: B) Remain calm and listen actively 17. A "post order" is: A) The list of employee salaries B) Specific instructions for a particular assigned duty location C) The order in which guards take their breaks D) A directive from the local police chief ANSWER: B) Specific instructions for a particular assigned duty location 18. If a security guard is offered a gift from a tenant for doing their job, the guard should: A) Accept it gratefully B) Politely decline and report the offer to their supervisor C) Ask for cash instead D) Accept it only if it is of high value ANSWER: B) Politely decline and report the offer to their supervisor 19. The legal term for a person who is allowed to be on a property is: A) Trespasser B) Invitee C) Licensee D) Burglar ANSWER: B) Invitee 20. Before testifying in court, a security guard should: A) Discuss the case with the defendant's lawyer B) Review their reports and notes from the incident C) Practice giving opinions rather than facts D) Avoid speaking with the prosecutor ANSWER: B) Review their reports and notes from the incident 21. What does the acronym "LEP" stand for in reporting? A) Law Enforcement Personnel B) Last Encountered Person C) License, Examine, and Protect D) Listen, Evaluate, Proceed ANSWER: A) Law Enforcement Personnel 22. A security guard's uniform should be: A) Dirty to show they are working hard B) Clean, neat, and professional at all times C) Worn only when the supervisor is present D) Modified for personal comfort ANSWER: B) Clean, neat, and professional at all times 23. The most effective way to deter crime is through: A) High-visibility patrols B) Hidden surveillance C) Interrogating everyone on site D) Threatening potential criminals ANSWER: A) High-visibility patrols 24. When encountering a medical emergency, a security guard's first step is to: A) Start CPR immediately B) Survey the scene for safety C) Move the victim to a more comfortable location D) Ask the victim what their insurance information is ANSWER: B) Survey the scene for safety 25. In the event of a fire, the priority order of action is: A) Contain, Activate, Rescue, Evacuate B) Rescue, Activate, Contain, Evacuate C) Activate, Rescue, Contain, Evacuate D) Evacuate, Activate, Rescue, Contain ANSWER: B) Rescue, Activate, Contain, Evacuate (RACE: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate) 26. "Chain of Custody" refers to the: A) Sequence of command in a security company B) Documentation of who has handled evidence from collection to court C) Process of chaining a gate shut D) Schedule for guard shifts ANSWER: B) Documentation of who has handled evidence from collection to court 27. A security guard should never discuss post operations or client information with: A) Their supervisor B) Law enforcement officers C) Authorized client representatives D) Family members or unauthorized persons ANSWER: D) Family members or unauthorized persons 28. When performing a building patrol, a guard should: A) Always take the same route at the same time B) Vary their route and timing randomly C) Only patrol the main entrance D) Patrol only when they feel like it ANSWER: B) Vary their route and timing randomly 29. The "Reasonable Person Standard" in use of force means the force used must be what another trained professional would find: A) Excessive under the circumstances B) Justified after the fact C) Reasonable and necessary under the circumstances D) The minimum possible, regardless of threat ANSWER: C) Reasonable and necessary under the circumstances 30. If a security guard is unsure of the correct action to take in a situation, they should: A) Do nothing and hope the problem goes away B) Guess based on what they've seen on television C) Contact their supervisor for guidance D) Ask a bystander for advice ANSWER: C) Contact their supervisor for guidance 31. What is the primary purpose of a perimeter patrol? A) To socialize with employees B) To check for any unauthorized access or breaches C) To get exercise during the shift D) To avoid the security office ANSWER: B) To check for any unauthorized access or breaches 32. When dealing with a lost child, the security guard should first: A) Take the child to their personal vehicle to look for the parents B) Comfort the child and try to locate the parent or guardian in the immediate area C) Scold the child for getting lost D) Ignore the child, as the parents will find them eventually ANSWER: B) Comfort the child and try to locate the parent or guardian in the immediate area 33. A bomb threat is received by phone. The security guard should: A) Hang up immediately B) Try to keep the caller on the line and signal a coworker to listen in and/or call police C) Argue with the caller about the validity of the threat D) Immediately evacuate the building without notifying anyone ANSWER: B) Try to keep the caller on the line and signal a coworker to listen in and/or call police 34. Personal protective equipment (PPE) for an unarmed security guard may include: A) A firearm and handcuffs B) A baton and pepper spray C) A flashlight, gloves, and a reflective vest D) A radio and a notebook ANSWER: C) A flashlight, gloves, and a reflective vest 35. The term "trespass to land" occurs when a person: A) Accidentally enters the wrong property B) Enters or remains on another's property without permission C) Is invited onto the property by a security guard D) Owns the property next door ANSWER: B) Enters or remains on another's property without permission 36. When a law enforcement officer arrives on site, the security guard should: A) Tell the officer they are not needed B) Defer to the officer's authority and provide assistance as needed C) Order the officer to leave the property D) Ignore the officer and continue their duties ANSWER: B) Defer to the officer's authority and provide assistance as needed 37. A shoplifting suspect who is detained by a security guard must be: A) Released after one hour B) Turned over to law enforcement in a timely manner C) Held in a locked room indefinitely D) Fined by the security guard on the spot ANSWER: B) Turned over to law enforcement in a timely manner 38. The "Color Code" of mental awareness for a security guard ranges from Condition White, which is unaware, to Condition Red, which is: A) Relaxed and off-duty B) Actively responding to a threat C) Panicked and unable to function D) Asleep on the job ANSWER: B) Actively responding to a threat 39. A security guard discovers a suspicious package. They should: A) Open it to see what's inside B) Shake it and listen for a ticking sound C) Isolate the area and notify supervisors and law enforcement D) Move it to a dumpster ANSWER: C) Isolate the area and notify supervisors and law enforcement 40. Good public relations for a security guard involves: A) Being rude to ensure people follow orders B) Being polite, helpful, and professional to everyone C) Only speaking to the client D) Ignoring the public's questions ANSWER: B) Being polite, helpful, and professional to everyone 41. What is the minimum age requirement to be licensed as an unarmed security guard in Oklahoma? A) 16 years old B) 18 years old C) 21 years old D) 25 years old ANSWER: B) 18 years old 42. A security guard can use deadly force: A) To protect property alone B) To stop someone from trespassing C) Only in defense of oneself or another from imminent death or great bodily harm D) Whenever they feel threatened ANSWER: C) Only in defense of oneself or another from imminent death or great bodily harm 43. When writing a report, the statement "the suspect was acting nervous" is: A) A good objective observation B) A conclusion or opinion that should be avoided C) The most important part of the report D) Only permissible if the suspect was convicted ANSWER: B) A conclusion or opinion that should be avoided 44. The legal doctrine that may protect a security guard from a lawsuit if they act reasonably is called: A) Qualified Immunity B) Absolute Immunity C) Sovereign Immunity D) Employer Immunity ANSWER: A) Qualified Immunity 45. If a security guard is injured on the job, their first action after ensuring their own safety should be to: A) Drive themselves to the hospital B) Notify their supervisor C) Finish their shift to avoid causing problems D) Sue the client immediately ANSWER: B) Notify their supervisor 46. During a power outage, a security guard's priority is to: A) Go home since there is no work to do B) Panic and call 911 immediately C) Secure critical areas and assist with evacuation if necessary D) Use their personal phone to play games ANSWER: C) Secure critical areas and assist with evacuation if necessary