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2022 HESI Med Surg V1 exit exam Questions and Verified ANSWERs Guaranteed Pass A+

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1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV twice daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective? A. Increased urine output B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased blood pressure D. Decreased respiratory rate ANSWER: A. Increased urine output 2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client states, "I can't believe I have diabetes. I feel perfectly fine." Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? A. "You need to accept this diagnosis to manage it properly." B. "Many people feel fine when they are first diagnosed." C. "Why do you think you feel fine even though you have this disease?" D. "It is difficult to accept a new diagnosis, especially when you feel well." ANSWER: D. "It is difficult to accept a new diagnosis, especially when you feel well." 3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The client's respiratory rate drops from 20 to 8 breaths/minute, and the nurse notes somnolence. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Administer prescribed naloxone (Narcan). B. Stimulate the client to take deep breaths. C. Decrease the oxygen flow rate. D. Increase the oxygen flow rate. ANSWER: C. Decrease the oxygen flow rate. 4. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which action is essential prior to starting the transfusion? A. Prime the IV tubing with 5% dextrose in water. B. Verify the blood product and client identity with another nurse. C. Ensure the client has a patent 22-gauge IV in the hand. D. Administer a prophylactic dose of IV furosemide (Lasix). ANSWER: B. Verify the blood product and client identity with another nurse. 5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect? A. Bradycardia and bradypnea B. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea C. Productive cough with yellow sputum D. Barrel-shaped chest and clubbing ANSWER: B. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea 6. A client with a history of gout is started on allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse should instruct the client to: A. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day. B. Report any skin rash immediately. C. Take the medication on an empty stomach. D. Expect joint pain to increase initially. ANSWER: B. Report any skin rash immediately. 7. A client with a head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Test the fluid for glucose. B. Suction the nares to maintain patency. C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position. D. Pack the nostrils with sterile gauze. ANSWER: A. Test the fluid for glucose. 8. A client with cirrhosis has significant ascites. The nurse should place the client in which position to enhance respiratory function? A. High Fowler's position B. Left lateral position C. Trendelenburg position D. Supine position ANSWER: A. High Fowler's position 9. A client is receiving a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The laboratory value the nurse must monitor most closely is: A. Prothrombin time (PT). B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). C. Platelet count. D. International normalized ratio (INR). ANSWER: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). 10. Four hours after a total thyroidectomy, a client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. The nurse's priority action is to: A. Assess for Chvostek's sign. B. Administer prescribed pain medication. C. Check the surgical dressing for bleeding. D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing. ANSWER: A. Assess for Chvostek's sign. 11. A client with pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The primary purpose of the NG tube for this client is to: A. Administer enteral nutrition. B. Decompress the stomach and reduce pancreatic stimulation. C. Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding. D. Administer medications. ANSWER: B. Decompress the stomach and reduce pancreatic stimulation. 12. The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease about the role of *Helicobacter pylori*. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will need to take antibiotics to kill the bacteria." B. "This bacteria can be treated, and my ulcer can be cured." C. "Stress is the only cause of my ulcer disease." D. "The bacteria weakens the protective lining of my stomach." ANSWER: C. "Stress is the only cause of my ulcer disease." 13. A client with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for: A. Hypoglycemia. B. Infection. C. Weight loss. D. Hypotension. ANSWER: B. Infection. 14. A client is being discharged after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching? A. "You may resume sexual activity in 2 weeks." B. "Stop exercising if you experience any shortness of breath." C. "A weight gain of 2 pounds in a day is expected." D. "Take your nitroglycerin for any chest pain that occurs." ANSWER: B. "Stop exercising if you experience any shortness of breath." 15. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected fracture of the right hip. Which finding is most indicative of a hip fracture? A. The right foot is everted. B. The right leg is longer than the left. C. The client can actively move the right leg. D. There is palpable pedal pulse in the right foot. ANSWER: A. The right foot is everted. 16. A client with Addison's disease is admitted to the unit. Which medication order should the nurse anticipate? A. IV hydrocortisone B. Oral levothyroxine C. Subcutaneous insulin D. PO spironolactone ANSWER: A. IV hydrocortisone 17. A client with a T5 spinal cord injury complains of a severe headache and is sweating profusely above the level of injury. The nurse should first: A. Administer an analgesic. B. Check for bladder distention. C. Lower the head of the bed. D. Notify the healthcare provider. ANSWER: B. Check for bladder distention. 18. A client with chronic kidney disease is started on epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse teaches the client that the purpose of this medication is to: A. Control blood pressure. B. Stimulate red blood cell production. C. Reduce serum potassium levels. D. Bind with dietary phosphorus. ANSWER: B. Stimulate red blood cell production. 19. When assessing a client with myasthenia gravis, the nurse should prioritize assessing: A. Pupillary response. B. Respiratory effort. C. Deep tendon reflexes. D. Heart sounds. ANSWER: B. Respiratory effort. 20. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor for which major complication associated with TPN therapy? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypokalemia C. Anemia D. Constipation ANSWER: A. Hyperglycemia 21. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. The nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following? A. Potassium chloride IV B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) C. Spironolactone (Aldactone) D. Regular insulin subcutaneously ANSWER: B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) 22. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the appropriate action? A. This is a normal finding. B. Clamp the chest tube immediately. C. Check the system for an air leak. D. Increase the suction pressure. ANSWER: C. Check the system for an air leak. 23. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing: A. Korsakoff's syndrome. B. Delirium tremens. C. Wernicke's encephalopathy. D. Hepatic encephalopathy. ANSWER: C. Wernicke's encephalopathy. 24. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the bowel prep has been effective? A. "I have had several formed brown stools." B. "My stool is loose and brown." C. "I am passing liquid stool that is clear." D. "I have not had a bowel movement yet." ANSWER: C. "I am passing liquid stool that is clear." 25. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse should teach the client to report which sign of overdose? A. Fatigue and cold intolerance B. Tachycardia and chest pain C. Weight gain and edema D. Bradycardia and constipation ANSWER: B. Tachycardia and chest pain 26. A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) states, "My fingers are so stiff and painful in the morning." The nurse's response should be based on the knowledge that morning stiffness is: A. A sign of disease remission. B. A classic symptom of RA. C. Caused by overuse the previous day. D. An indicator of osteoarthritis. ANSWER: B. A classic symptom of RA. 27. A client is receiving radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. The nurse should anticipate which potential side effect? A. Diarrhea B. Stomatitis C. Alopecia D. Neuropathy ANSWER: B. Stomatitis 28. The nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which finding is most characteristic of PAD? A. Pitting edema of the ankles B. Diminished peripheral pulses C. Brown discoloration of the skin D. Ulcers on the medial malleolus ANSWER: B. Diminished peripheral pulses 29. A client with a history of migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan (Imitrex). The nurse should instruct the client to: A. Take the medication daily for prevention. B. Take the medication at the first sign of a migraine. C. Take the medication only if the headache is severe. D. Crush the tablet and mix it with food. ANSWER: B. Take the medication at the first sign of a migraine. 30. A client with a pneumothorax has a chest tube inserted and connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes that the fluid in the water-seal chamber is fluctuating with each breath. The nurse should: A. Clamp the chest tube. B. Check for an air leak. C. Document the finding. D. Increase the suction. ANSWER: C. Document the finding. 31. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should expect which laboratory result? A. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L B. Serum sodium 130 mEq/L C. Urine specific gravity 1.002 D. Polyuria ANSWER: B. Serum sodium 130 mEq/L 32. A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should teach the client to report which serious adverse effect immediately? A. Weight gain B. Sore throat and fever C. Drowsiness D. Tachycardia ANSWER: B. Sore throat and fever 33. A client has a permanent pacemaker inserted. Which discharge instruction is most important? A. "Avoid using a microwave oven." B. "You cannot have any MRI scans in the future." C. "Check your radial pulse daily and report a rate below the set rate." D. "Limit arm movement on the side of the pacemaker for 2 weeks." ANSWER: C. "Check your radial pulse daily and report a rate below the set rate."

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2022 HESI Med Surg V1 exit exam Questions and Verified ANSWERs
Guaranteed Pass A+

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV twice daily. Which finding indicates
to the nurse that the medication is effective?

A. Increased urine output

B. Decreased heart rate

C. Increased blood pressure

D. Decreased respiratory rate

ANSWER: A. Increased urine output



2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client states, "I can't
believe I have diabetes. I feel perfectly fine." Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

A. "You need to accept this diagnosis to manage it properly."

B. "Many people feel fine when they are first diagnosed."

C. "Why do you think you feel fine even though you have this disease?"

D. "It is difficult to accept a new diagnosis, especially when you feel well."

ANSWER: D. "It is difficult to accept a new diagnosis, especially when you feel well."



3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2
L/min. The client's respiratory rate drops from 20 to 8 breaths/minute, and the nurse notes somnolence.
What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Administer prescribed naloxone (Narcan).

B. Stimulate the client to take deep breaths.

C. Decrease the oxygen flow rate.

D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.

ANSWER: C. Decrease the oxygen flow rate.



4. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which action is
essential prior to starting the transfusion?

,A. Prime the IV tubing with 5% dextrose in water.

B. Verify the blood product and client identity with another nurse.

C. Ensure the client has a patent 22-gauge IV in the hand.

D. Administer a prophylactic dose of IV furosemide (Lasix).

ANSWER: B. Verify the blood product and client identity with another nurse.



5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding should the
nurse expect?

A. Bradycardia and bradypnea

B. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea

C. Productive cough with yellow sputum

D. Barrel-shaped chest and clubbing

ANSWER: B. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea



6. A client with a history of gout is started on allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse should instruct the client
to:

A. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

B. Report any skin rash immediately.

C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

D. Expect joint pain to increase initially.

ANSWER: B. Report any skin rash immediately.



7. A client with a head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. Which action should the nurse take
first?

A. Test the fluid for glucose.

B. Suction the nares to maintain patency.

C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position.

D. Pack the nostrils with sterile gauze.

ANSWER: A. Test the fluid for glucose.

,8. A client with cirrhosis has significant ascites. The nurse should place the client in which position to
enhance respiratory function?

A. High Fowler's position

B. Left lateral position

C. Trendelenburg position

D. Supine position

ANSWER: A. High Fowler's position



9. A client is receiving a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The laboratory
value the nurse must monitor most closely is:

A. Prothrombin time (PT).

B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

C. Platelet count.

D. International normalized ratio (INR).

ANSWER: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).



10. Four hours after a total thyroidectomy, a client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the
mouth. The nurse's priority action is to:

A. Assess for Chvostek's sign.

B. Administer prescribed pain medication.

C. Check the surgical dressing for bleeding.

D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.

ANSWER: A. Assess for Chvostek's sign.



11. A client with pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The primary purpose of the NG tube
for this client is to:

A. Administer enteral nutrition.

B. Decompress the stomach and reduce pancreatic stimulation.

C. Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding.

D. Administer medications.

, ANSWER: B. Decompress the stomach and reduce pancreatic stimulation.



12. The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease about the role of *Helicobacter pylori*. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I will need to take antibiotics to kill the bacteria."

B. "This bacteria can be treated, and my ulcer can be cured."

C. "Stress is the only cause of my ulcer disease."

D. "The bacteria weakens the protective lining of my stomach."

ANSWER: C. "Stress is the only cause of my ulcer disease."



13. A client with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for:

A. Hypoglycemia.

B. Infection.

C. Weight loss.

D. Hypotension.

ANSWER: B. Infection.



14. A client is being discharged after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for
the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

A. "You may resume sexual activity in 2 weeks."

B. "Stop exercising if you experience any shortness of breath."

C. "A weight gain of 2 pounds in a day is expected."

D. "Take your nitroglycerin for any chest pain that occurs."

ANSWER: B. "Stop exercising if you experience any shortness of breath."



15. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected fracture of the right hip. Which finding is most
indicative of a hip fracture?

A. The right foot is everted.

B. The right leg is longer than the left.

C. The client can actively move the right leg.
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