NAB CORE PRACTICE EXAM 2025–2026 – 100 QUESTIONS
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS| DELIVERED AS
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAND
Choose the best answer. Correct answers are in bold with short explanations.
1. The administrator’s primary responsibility in a skilled nursing facility is to:
A. Supervise nursing staff directly
B. Handle all financial operations personally
C. Ensure overall compliance with regulations and quality resident care
D. Approve all dietary menus
Explanation: Administrators oversee operations to ensure compliance and quality, not perform
all tasks personally.
2. Which law primarily governs resident rights in nursing facilities?
A. Fair Labor Standards Act
B. OBRA (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) of 1987
C. HIPAA
D. Civil Rights Act
Explanation: OBRA ‘87 established resident rights and minimum care standards.
3. The purpose of a QAPI program is to:
A. Punish staff
B. Review employee pay
C. Continuously improve care and services using data
D. Track dietary intake
Explanation: QAPI uses performance data to enhance resident outcomes and facility processes.
4. Minimum frequency of a resident care plan review:
,A. Monthly
B. Every 30 days
C. Every 90 days or with significant change
D. Annually
Explanation: Federal regulations require quarterly or significant-change reviews.
5. Which department manages infection control?
A. Activities
B. Maintenance
C. Nursing
D. Dietary
Explanation: Infection Preventionists are typically within nursing departments.
6. Upon resident admission, the facility must provide:
A. IRS Form W-4
B. Fire safety plan
C. Resident rights and responsibilities notice
D. Food safety report
Explanation: Residents must receive a written notice of rights and responsibilities.
7. HIPAA protects:
A. Employee wages
B. Safety protocols
C. Privacy and security of health information
D. Resident activity participation
Explanation: HIPAA safeguards health information confidentiality and security.
8. Life Safety Code compliance is enforced by:
A. OSHA
B. CMS and state survey agencies
, C. Department of Labor
D. State pharmacy board
Explanation: CMS uses state surveys to enforce fire and safety regulations.
9. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is used to:
A. Track finances
B. Assess resident functional status and care planning
C. Track dietary quality
D. Record staff hours
Explanation: MDS data drives care planning and quality reporting.
10. Staff development coordinator’s main duty:
A. File time cards
B. Plan, implement, and evaluate employee training programs
C. Approve schedules
D. Handle payroll
Explanation: Staff training ensures competent, safe care delivery.
11. OSHA protects:
A. Residents
B. Employees from workplace hazards
C. Families
D. Visitors
Explanation: OSHA focuses on employee safety and workplace health hazards.
12. Documenting medication errors requires:
A. Census report
B. Incident/occurrence report
C. Quality assurance log
D. MAR
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS| DELIVERED AS
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAND
Choose the best answer. Correct answers are in bold with short explanations.
1. The administrator’s primary responsibility in a skilled nursing facility is to:
A. Supervise nursing staff directly
B. Handle all financial operations personally
C. Ensure overall compliance with regulations and quality resident care
D. Approve all dietary menus
Explanation: Administrators oversee operations to ensure compliance and quality, not perform
all tasks personally.
2. Which law primarily governs resident rights in nursing facilities?
A. Fair Labor Standards Act
B. OBRA (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) of 1987
C. HIPAA
D. Civil Rights Act
Explanation: OBRA ‘87 established resident rights and minimum care standards.
3. The purpose of a QAPI program is to:
A. Punish staff
B. Review employee pay
C. Continuously improve care and services using data
D. Track dietary intake
Explanation: QAPI uses performance data to enhance resident outcomes and facility processes.
4. Minimum frequency of a resident care plan review:
,A. Monthly
B. Every 30 days
C. Every 90 days or with significant change
D. Annually
Explanation: Federal regulations require quarterly or significant-change reviews.
5. Which department manages infection control?
A. Activities
B. Maintenance
C. Nursing
D. Dietary
Explanation: Infection Preventionists are typically within nursing departments.
6. Upon resident admission, the facility must provide:
A. IRS Form W-4
B. Fire safety plan
C. Resident rights and responsibilities notice
D. Food safety report
Explanation: Residents must receive a written notice of rights and responsibilities.
7. HIPAA protects:
A. Employee wages
B. Safety protocols
C. Privacy and security of health information
D. Resident activity participation
Explanation: HIPAA safeguards health information confidentiality and security.
8. Life Safety Code compliance is enforced by:
A. OSHA
B. CMS and state survey agencies
, C. Department of Labor
D. State pharmacy board
Explanation: CMS uses state surveys to enforce fire and safety regulations.
9. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is used to:
A. Track finances
B. Assess resident functional status and care planning
C. Track dietary quality
D. Record staff hours
Explanation: MDS data drives care planning and quality reporting.
10. Staff development coordinator’s main duty:
A. File time cards
B. Plan, implement, and evaluate employee training programs
C. Approve schedules
D. Handle payroll
Explanation: Staff training ensures competent, safe care delivery.
11. OSHA protects:
A. Residents
B. Employees from workplace hazards
C. Families
D. Visitors
Explanation: OSHA focuses on employee safety and workplace health hazards.
12. Documenting medication errors requires:
A. Census report
B. Incident/occurrence report
C. Quality assurance log
D. MAR
