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HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025 — Study Guide, Practice
Questions & Nursing Exam Prep
Prepare for HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025 with a complete study guide, practice
questions, and exam review materials. Master essential drug classifications,
pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, medication administration, side effects, and patient
safety to excel in your HESI Pharmacology Evolve exam and strengthen your nursing
knowledge.
HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025
• HESI pharmacology practice test questions
• Nursing pharmacology study guide
A client is taking famotidine. Which client statement should the nurse further assess because it
may indicate that the client is experiencing a side effect of this drug?
A. "I have heartburn whenever I lie down."
B. "I am never hungry. I've lost weight in the past 2 weeks."
C. "I have a funny metallic taste in my mouth."
D. "I seem to be having difficulty thinking clearly." - ANSWER-D. "I seem to be having difficulty
thinking clearly."
,2|Page
A common side effect of of famotidine is confusion. Options A, B, and C are not side effects of
this medication.
A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I
need to take all of these medications for TB?" What information should the nurse provide?
A. Antiretroviral medications decrease the efficacy of the TB drugs.
B. Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant organisms.
C. Duration of the medication regimen is shortened.
D. Potential adverse drug reactions are minimized. - ANSWER-B. Multiple drugs prevent the
development of resistant organisms.
A multidrug regimen is prescribed for a client with HIV and TB to prevent the development of
resistance of the tubercle bacilli. Although antitubercular medications can inhibit some
antiretrovirals, a multidrug regimen is needed to inhibit the proliferation of the virulent tubercle
bacilli. The duration of antitubercular therapy is typically 6 to 9 months and is not shortened by
the use of multiple medications. A client who is receiving HIV and TB therapy is at an increased
risk of adverse reactions because of the complex medication regimens and complications
secondary to immunosuppression.
A child is being treated with mebendazole for pinworms. Which type of diet should the mother
be instructed to feed the child while the child is receiving this medication?
A. Lactose-free foods
B. High-fat diet
C. Vitamin C-enriched foods
D. High-fiber diet - ANSWER-B. High-fat diet
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A high-fat diet increases the absorption of mebendazole, which boosts the effectiveness of the
medication in eliminating the pinworms. Options A, C, and D are not related to the
administration of this medication.
During therapy with isoniazid, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory
value closely?
A. Liver enzyme levels
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
C. Serum electrolyte levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) - ANSWER-A. Liver enzyme levels
The client receiving isoniazid is at risk for the development of hepatitis; therefore, liver function
test results should be monitored carefully during drug therapy. Options B, C, and D are not
specific indicators of liver function, so they are not monitored closely during isoniazid therapy.
A client with mild parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine. Which statement accurately
describes the action of this medication?
A. Viral organisms that provide the underlyling pathophysiology for parkinsonism are
eliminated.
B. Acetylcholine in the myoneural junction is enhanced.
C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
D. Norepinephrine release is reduced within the peripheral system as the final step in dopamine
uptake. - ANSWER-C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
Amantadine is a dopamine-releasing agent; therefore, this medication increases the amount of
dopamine present in the central nervous system. Although this medication is also an antiviral
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agent, the antiviral effect is not significant in the treatment of parkinsonism. Options B and D
are not affected by amantadine.
A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin, 0.25 mg
daily. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan?
A. Take the medication in the morning before rising.
B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.
C. Expect some vision changes caused by the medication.
D. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin K. - ANSWER-B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.
Monitoring pulse rate is very important when taking digoxin. The client should be further
instructed to report pulse rates <60 or >110 beats/min and to withhold the dosage until
consulting with the health care provider in such a case. Options A and D are not necessary.
Option C is an indication of drug toxicity, and the client should be instructed to report this
immediately.
A client is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor, and a family member asks the nurse how this
medication works. Which pharmacophysiologic explanation should the nurse use to describe
this class of drug?
A. Promotes excretion of neurotoxins.
B. Slows nerve cell degeneration.
C. Improves nerve impulse transmission.
D. Stimulates nerve cell regeneration. - ANSWER-C. Improves nerve impulse transmission.
Cholinesterase inhibitors work to increase the availability of acetylcholine at cholinergic
synapses, which aids in neuronal transmission and assists in memory formation. Basing an
HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025 — Study Guide, Practice
Questions & Nursing Exam Prep
Prepare for HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025 with a complete study guide, practice
questions, and exam review materials. Master essential drug classifications,
pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, medication administration, side effects, and patient
safety to excel in your HESI Pharmacology Evolve exam and strengthen your nursing
knowledge.
HESI Pharmacology Evolve 2025
• HESI pharmacology practice test questions
• Nursing pharmacology study guide
A client is taking famotidine. Which client statement should the nurse further assess because it
may indicate that the client is experiencing a side effect of this drug?
A. "I have heartburn whenever I lie down."
B. "I am never hungry. I've lost weight in the past 2 weeks."
C. "I have a funny metallic taste in my mouth."
D. "I seem to be having difficulty thinking clearly." - ANSWER-D. "I seem to be having difficulty
thinking clearly."
,2|Page
A common side effect of of famotidine is confusion. Options A, B, and C are not side effects of
this medication.
A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I
need to take all of these medications for TB?" What information should the nurse provide?
A. Antiretroviral medications decrease the efficacy of the TB drugs.
B. Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant organisms.
C. Duration of the medication regimen is shortened.
D. Potential adverse drug reactions are minimized. - ANSWER-B. Multiple drugs prevent the
development of resistant organisms.
A multidrug regimen is prescribed for a client with HIV and TB to prevent the development of
resistance of the tubercle bacilli. Although antitubercular medications can inhibit some
antiretrovirals, a multidrug regimen is needed to inhibit the proliferation of the virulent tubercle
bacilli. The duration of antitubercular therapy is typically 6 to 9 months and is not shortened by
the use of multiple medications. A client who is receiving HIV and TB therapy is at an increased
risk of adverse reactions because of the complex medication regimens and complications
secondary to immunosuppression.
A child is being treated with mebendazole for pinworms. Which type of diet should the mother
be instructed to feed the child while the child is receiving this medication?
A. Lactose-free foods
B. High-fat diet
C. Vitamin C-enriched foods
D. High-fiber diet - ANSWER-B. High-fat diet
,3|Page
A high-fat diet increases the absorption of mebendazole, which boosts the effectiveness of the
medication in eliminating the pinworms. Options A, C, and D are not related to the
administration of this medication.
During therapy with isoniazid, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory
value closely?
A. Liver enzyme levels
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
C. Serum electrolyte levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) - ANSWER-A. Liver enzyme levels
The client receiving isoniazid is at risk for the development of hepatitis; therefore, liver function
test results should be monitored carefully during drug therapy. Options B, C, and D are not
specific indicators of liver function, so they are not monitored closely during isoniazid therapy.
A client with mild parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine. Which statement accurately
describes the action of this medication?
A. Viral organisms that provide the underlyling pathophysiology for parkinsonism are
eliminated.
B. Acetylcholine in the myoneural junction is enhanced.
C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
D. Norepinephrine release is reduced within the peripheral system as the final step in dopamine
uptake. - ANSWER-C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
Amantadine is a dopamine-releasing agent; therefore, this medication increases the amount of
dopamine present in the central nervous system. Although this medication is also an antiviral
, 4|Page
agent, the antiviral effect is not significant in the treatment of parkinsonism. Options B and D
are not affected by amantadine.
A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin, 0.25 mg
daily. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan?
A. Take the medication in the morning before rising.
B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.
C. Expect some vision changes caused by the medication.
D. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin K. - ANSWER-B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.
Monitoring pulse rate is very important when taking digoxin. The client should be further
instructed to report pulse rates <60 or >110 beats/min and to withhold the dosage until
consulting with the health care provider in such a case. Options A and D are not necessary.
Option C is an indication of drug toxicity, and the client should be instructed to report this
immediately.
A client is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor, and a family member asks the nurse how this
medication works. Which pharmacophysiologic explanation should the nurse use to describe
this class of drug?
A. Promotes excretion of neurotoxins.
B. Slows nerve cell degeneration.
C. Improves nerve impulse transmission.
D. Stimulates nerve cell regeneration. - ANSWER-C. Improves nerve impulse transmission.
Cholinesterase inhibitors work to increase the availability of acetylcholine at cholinergic
synapses, which aids in neuronal transmission and assists in memory formation. Basing an
