HCA 100 RAI Exam QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | LATEST UPDATE

HCA 100 RAI Exam: Questions and ANSWERs 1. What does the acronym RAI stand for in long-term care? a) Resident Assessment Instrument b) Resident Assistance Intervention c) Regulatory Assessment Initiative d) Resource Allocation Index ANSWER: a) Resident Assessment Instrument 2. The primary goal of the RAI process is to: a) Reduce staffing costs in the facility. b) Create a comprehensive, person-centered care plan for each resident. c) Serve as a billing document for Medicare. d) Replace the need for physician's orders. ANSWER: b) Create a comprehensive, person-centered care plan for each resident. 3. What are the three core components of the RAI? a) MDS, Care Plan, and Physician's Orders b) MDS, Care Area Assessments (CAAs), and Care Planning c) Triggers, CAAs, and Progress Notes d) Admission Assessment, MDS, and Discharge Summary ANSWER: b) MDS, Care Area Assessments (CAAs), and Care Planning 4. What does MDS stand for? a) Minimum Data Set b) Medical Documentation System c) Mandatory Disclosure Summary d) Multidisciplinary Status ANSWER: a) Minimum Data Set 5. The MDS is a: a) Standardized, primary screening and assessment tool. b) A daily progress note written by the nurse. c) A form used only for physical therapy evaluations. d) A document completed solely by the physician. ANSWER: a) Standardized, primary screening and assessment tool. 6. Which regulatory body mandates the use of the RAI in skilled nursing facilities? a) The Joint Commission (TJC) b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) d) Department of Labor (DOL) ANSWER: c) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) 7. The MDS assessment must be completed within how many days of a resident's admission? a) 5 days b) 7 days c) 14 days d) 30 days ANSWER: c) 14 days 8. The "Assessment Reference Date" (ARD) is defined as: a) The date the resident is discharged. b) The last day of the observation period for the MDS assessment. c) The date the physician signs the orders. d) The date the resident is admitted. ANSWER: b) The last day of the observation period for the MDS assessment. 9. Who on the interdisciplinary team is ultimately responsible for the completion and accuracy of the MDS? a) The Registered Nurse (RN) Assessment Coordinator (RAC) b) The Physical Therapist c) The Social Worker d) The Nursing Assistant ANSWER: a) The Registered Nurse (RN) Assessment Coordinator (RAC) 10. Information for the MDS is gathered primarily through: a) Physician's diagnosis only. b) Family interviews only. c) Direct observation and resident interview over a specified look-back period. d) The resident's previous medical records. ANSWER: c) Direct observation and resident interview over a specified look-back period. 11. The "look-back period" for most MDS items is typically: a) 24 hours b) 7 days c) 14 days d) 30 days ANSWER: b) 7 days 12. Which section of the MDS assesses a resident's cognitive function? a) Section B: Hearing, Speech, and Vision b) Section C: Cognitive Patterns c) Section D: Mood d) Section E: Behavior ANSWER: b) Section C: Cognitive Patterns 13. The Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS) is used to screen for: a) Depression b) Cognitive Impairment c) Hearing Difficulty d) Pain ANSWER: b) Cognitive Impairment 14. A resident who is comatose would be assessed using which tool instead of the BIMS? a) The Staff Assessment for Mental Status (SAMS) b) The Cognitive Performance Scale (CPS) c) The Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS) d) The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) ANSWER: b) The Cognitive Performance Scale (CPS) 15. Section D of the MDS focuses on: a) Mood b) Behavior c) Functional Status d) Medications ANSWER: a) Mood 16. The PHQ-9® is a tool used in the MDS to assess: a) Pain b) Mood (Depression) c) Cognitive Status d) Falls Risk ANSWER: b) Mood (Depression) 17. Which section documents a resident's ability to perform Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)? a) Section G: Functional Status b) Section H: Bladder and Bowel c) Section I: Active Diagnoses d) Section K: Swallowing/Nutritional Status ANSWER: a) Section G: Functional Status 18. ADLs include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Bathing and Dressing b) Toileting c) Managing Finances d) Eating ANSWER: c) Managing Finances 19. The ADL Self-Performance is coded based on: a) What the resident *says* they can do. b) The staff's opinion of what the resident should be able to do. c) What the resident actually did during the look-back period. d) The family's report of the resident's abilities at home. ANSWER: c) What the resident actually did during the look-back period. 20. A resident who requires physical assistance from two or more people to transfer would be coded as: a) Limited Assistance b) Extensive Assistance c) Dependent d) Total Dependence ANSWER: d) Total Dependence 21. Section H of the MDS assesses: a) Bladder and Bowel b) Skin Condition c) Nutritional Status d) Medications ANSWER: a) Bladder and Bowel 22. A resident who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) would be documented in which section? a) Section I: Active Diagnoses b) Section J: Health Conditions c) Section K: Swallowing/Nutritional Status d) Section M: Skin Conditions ANSWER: a) Section I: Active Diagnoses