GPSTC Test 1 – Questions & Detailed
Answers (A+)
GPSTC Certification Practice Test: 100 Questions & Answers
Section 1: Use of Force & Constitutional Law
1. The 4th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects citizens from what?
A. Self-incrimination
B. Cruel and unusual punishment
C. Unreasonable searches and seizures
D. Double jeopardy
2. The use of force that appears objectively reasonable to a hypothetical
"reasonable officer" is based on the precedent set by what Supreme Court case?
A. Miranda v. Arizona
B. Tennessee v. Garner
C. Graham v. Connor
D. Terry v. Ohio
3. According to Tennessee v. Garner, when may an officer use deadly force to
apprehend a fleeing suspect?
A. Whenever a felony has been committed.
B. When the suspect is fleeing from any crime.
C. When the officer believes the suspect is dangerous.
D. When the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury
to the officer or others.
4. The "objective reasonableness" standard in use-of-force cases requires the
court to consider:
A. The officer's underlying intent or motivation.
B. The 20/20 hindsight of what the officer should have done.
,C. The facts and circumstances confronting the officer, without the benefit of
hindsight.
D. The severity of the suspect's injuries.
5. What is the primary purpose of a "Terry frisk" or pat-down?
A. To find evidence of a crime.
B. To discover weapons for the officer's safety.
C. To arrest the suspect.
D. To inventory personal property.
6. The 5th Amendment protects a person's right against:
A. Unreasonable search and seizure.
B. Self-incrimination.
C. Excessive bail.
D. Racial discrimination.
7. The 6th Amendment guarantees the right to:
A. A speedy and public trial.
B. Be free from cruel and unusual punishment.
C. Privacy.
D. Bear arms.
8. Under the 14th Amendment, states are prohibited from depriving any person
of life, liberty, or property without:
A. A warrant.
B. A jury.
C. Due process of law.
D. An attorney.
9. A "seizure" of a person occurs when, in view of all the circumstances, a
reasonable person would believe they are:
A. Being questioned.
B. Not free to leave.
C. Under observation.
D. In a high-crime area.
, 10. The legal standard required to make a lawful arrest is:
A. Reasonable suspicion.
B. Probable cause.
C. Preponderance of the evidence.
D. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
Section 2: Criminal Law & Offenses
11. The three essential elements of most crimes are:
A. Motive, Means, Opportunity
B. Actus Reus, Mens Rea, Concurrence
C. Intent, Action, Result
D. Suspicion, Probable Cause, Arrest
12. Actus Reus refers to the:
A. Guilty mind.
B. Guilty act.
C. Concurrence of act and intent.
D. Causation of harm.
13. Mens Rea refers to the:
A. Guilty mind or criminal intent.
B. Physical act of the crime.
C. Body of the crime.
D. Victim's statement.
14. A crime punishable by death or imprisonment for more than 12 months is
defined in Georgia as a:
A. Misdemeanor
B. Felony
C. Violation
D. Capital offense
15. The offense of entering a building without authority with the intent to
commit a felony or theft inside is:
Answers (A+)
GPSTC Certification Practice Test: 100 Questions & Answers
Section 1: Use of Force & Constitutional Law
1. The 4th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects citizens from what?
A. Self-incrimination
B. Cruel and unusual punishment
C. Unreasonable searches and seizures
D. Double jeopardy
2. The use of force that appears objectively reasonable to a hypothetical
"reasonable officer" is based on the precedent set by what Supreme Court case?
A. Miranda v. Arizona
B. Tennessee v. Garner
C. Graham v. Connor
D. Terry v. Ohio
3. According to Tennessee v. Garner, when may an officer use deadly force to
apprehend a fleeing suspect?
A. Whenever a felony has been committed.
B. When the suspect is fleeing from any crime.
C. When the officer believes the suspect is dangerous.
D. When the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury
to the officer or others.
4. The "objective reasonableness" standard in use-of-force cases requires the
court to consider:
A. The officer's underlying intent or motivation.
B. The 20/20 hindsight of what the officer should have done.
,C. The facts and circumstances confronting the officer, without the benefit of
hindsight.
D. The severity of the suspect's injuries.
5. What is the primary purpose of a "Terry frisk" or pat-down?
A. To find evidence of a crime.
B. To discover weapons for the officer's safety.
C. To arrest the suspect.
D. To inventory personal property.
6. The 5th Amendment protects a person's right against:
A. Unreasonable search and seizure.
B. Self-incrimination.
C. Excessive bail.
D. Racial discrimination.
7. The 6th Amendment guarantees the right to:
A. A speedy and public trial.
B. Be free from cruel and unusual punishment.
C. Privacy.
D. Bear arms.
8. Under the 14th Amendment, states are prohibited from depriving any person
of life, liberty, or property without:
A. A warrant.
B. A jury.
C. Due process of law.
D. An attorney.
9. A "seizure" of a person occurs when, in view of all the circumstances, a
reasonable person would believe they are:
A. Being questioned.
B. Not free to leave.
C. Under observation.
D. In a high-crime area.
, 10. The legal standard required to make a lawful arrest is:
A. Reasonable suspicion.
B. Probable cause.
C. Preponderance of the evidence.
D. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
Section 2: Criminal Law & Offenses
11. The three essential elements of most crimes are:
A. Motive, Means, Opportunity
B. Actus Reus, Mens Rea, Concurrence
C. Intent, Action, Result
D. Suspicion, Probable Cause, Arrest
12. Actus Reus refers to the:
A. Guilty mind.
B. Guilty act.
C. Concurrence of act and intent.
D. Causation of harm.
13. Mens Rea refers to the:
A. Guilty mind or criminal intent.
B. Physical act of the crime.
C. Body of the crime.
D. Victim's statement.
14. A crime punishable by death or imprisonment for more than 12 months is
defined in Georgia as a:
A. Misdemeanor
B. Felony
C. Violation
D. Capital offense
15. The offense of entering a building without authority with the intent to
commit a felony or theft inside is:
