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HOSA PHARMACOLOGY LATEST EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS |ALREADY GRADED A+

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1. How are solid forms of drugs most frequently administered? A) Orally B) Sublingually C) Rectally D) Via inhalation Answer: A) Orally Solid dosage forms, such as tablets and capsules, are the most common and convenient form of drug administration. The oral route is generally the safest, most economical, and most acceptable to patients, making it the most frequently used method for solid forms. 2. The proprietary name given to a drug by the pharmaceutical company that developed it is known as the: A) Chemical name B) Generic name C) Brand name D) Official name Answer: C) Brand name The brand name (or trade name) is the trademark name under which a drug is marketed by a specific company. It is designed to be catchy and memorable for marketing purposes. The generic name is the common, non-proprietary name, while the chemical name describes the molecular structure. 3. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the movement of the drug from its site of administration into the bloodstream? A) Absorption B) Distribution C) Metabolism D) Excretion Answer: A) Absorption Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug. It consists of four main phases: Absorption (the drug enters the bloodstream), Distribution (the drug moves to body tissues), Metabolism (the drug is broken down), and Excretion (the drug is removed from the body). 4. The first-pass effect significantly reduces the bioavailability of a drug administered by which route? A) Intravenous B) Sublingual C) Oral D) Transdermal Answer: C) Oral After oral administration, drugs are absorbed through the GI tract and travel via the portal vein to the liver, where they may be extensively metabolized before reaching the systemic circulation. This is known as the first-pass effect (or first-pass metabolism). Routes like IV, sublingual, and transdermal bypass this effect. 5. A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates a response is known as a(n): A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) Partial agonist D) Inverse agonist Answer: A) Agonist An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a pharmacological response. An antagonist binds to a receptor but does not activate it; it blocks the action of agonists. A partial agonist has limited efficacy even when fully occupying the receptors. 6. The study of how genetic variation affects an individual's response to drugs is called: A) Pharmacodynamics B) Pharmacogenetics C) Pharmacoeconomics D) Pharmacognosy Answer: B) Pharmacogenetics Pharmacogenetics is the field of study that examines how a person's genetic makeup influences their response to medications. This can explain why some patients may require different dosages or experience unique side effects compared to others. 7. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance according to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)? A) Testosterone B) Alprazolam (Xanax) C) Oxycodone (OxyContin) D) Phenobarbital Answer: C) Oxycodone (OxyContin) Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. They have accepted medical uses but require a written prescription with no refills. Oxycodone is a potent opioid in this schedule. Testosterone is Schedule III, while Alprazolam and Phenobarbital are Schedule IV.

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Publié le
5 novembre 2025
Nombre de pages
56
Écrit en
2025/2026
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HOSA PHARMACOLOGY LATEST EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
|ALREADY GRADED A+

1. How are solid forms of drugs most frequently administered?
A) Orally
B) Sublingually
C) Rectally
D) Via inhalation

Answer: A) Orally
Solid dosage forms, such as tablets and capsules, are the most common and convenient form of
drug administration. The oral route is generally the safest, most economical, and most acceptable
to patients, making it the most frequently used method for solid forms.



2. The proprietary name given to a drug by the pharmaceutical company that developed it is
known as the:
A) Chemical name
B) Generic name
C) Brand name
D) Official name

Answer: C) Brand name
The brand name (or trade name) is the trademark name under which a drug is marketed by a
specific company. It is designed to be catchy and memorable for marketing purposes. The
generic name is the common, non-proprietary name, while the chemical name describes the
molecular structure.



3. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the movement of the drug from its site of
administration into the bloodstream?
A) Absorption
B) Distribution
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion

Answer: A) Absorption
Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug. It consists of four main phases:
Absorption (the drug enters the bloodstream), Distribution (the drug moves to body tissues),
Metabolism (the drug is broken down), and Excretion (the drug is removed from the body).

,4. The first-pass effect significantly reduces the bioavailability of a drug administered by which
route?
A) Intravenous
B) Sublingual
C) Oral
D) Transdermal

Answer: C) Oral
After oral administration, drugs are absorbed through the GI tract and travel via the portal vein
to the liver, where they may be extensively metabolized before reaching the systemic circulation.
This is known as the first-pass effect (or first-pass metabolism). Routes like IV, sublingual, and
transdermal bypass this effect.



5. A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates a response is known as a(n):
A) Agonist
B) Antagonist
C) Partial agonist
D) Inverse agonist

Answer: A) Agonist
An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a pharmacological
response. An antagonist binds to a receptor but does not activate it; it blocks the action of
agonists. A partial agonist has limited efficacy even when fully occupying the receptors.


6. The study of how genetic variation affects an individual's response to drugs is called:
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Pharmacogenetics
C) Pharmacoeconomics
D) Pharmacognosy

Answer: B) Pharmacogenetics
Pharmacogenetics is the field of study that examines how a person's genetic makeup influences
their response to medications. This can explain why some patients may require different dosages
or experience unique side effects compared to others.


7. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance according to the U.S. Drug
Enforcement Administration (DEA)?
A) Testosterone
B) Alprazolam (Xanax)
C) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
D) Phenobarbital

,Answer: C) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe
psychological or physical dependence. They have accepted medical uses but require a written
prescription with no refills. Oxycodone is a potent opioid in this schedule. Testosterone is
Schedule III, while Alprazolam and Phenobarbital are Schedule IV.



8. The term "teratogenic" refers to a drug's ability to cause:
A) Liver damage
B) Birth defects
C) Cancer
D) Allergic reactions

Answer: B) Birth defects
A teratogen is any agent or substance that can disrupt the development of an embryo or fetus,
leading to birth defects. Drugs like isotretinoin (Accutane) and valproic acid are known
teratogens and are strictly contraindicated in pregnancy.



9. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Stomach

Answer: C) Liver
The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism (biotransformation), where enzymes (most
notably the cytochrome P450 system) chemically alter drugs to make them more water-soluble
for excretion by the kidneys.



10. The primary organ for the excretion of drugs and their metabolites is the:
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Skin
D) Large intestine

Answer: B) Kidney
The kidneys are the main organs for excreting water-soluble drugs and metabolites through
urine. Renal excretion involves glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, and sometimes tubular
reabsorption.

, 11. A patient taking warfarin (Coumadin) presents with excessive bruising. The nurse should be
concerned about a potential interaction with which over-the-counter medication?
A) Ibuprofen (Advil)
B) Loratadine (Claritin)
C) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D) Psyllium (Metamucil)

Answer: A) Ibuprofen (Advil)
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can inhibit platelet aggregation
and cause gastric erosion, both of which significantly increase the risk of bleeding when
combined with the anticoagulant warfarin.



12. Which class of drugs is considered first-line therapy for uncomplicated hypertension in many
patients?
A) Thiazide diuretics
B) Beta-blockers
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) ACE inhibitors

Answer: A) Thiazide diuretics
According to guidelines from organizations like the JNC 8, thiazide diuretics (e.g.,
hydrochlorothiazide) are recommended as first-line therapy for hypertension due to their proven
efficacy in reducing cardiovascular events, low cost, and generally favorable side effect profile.



13. The mechanism of action of statin drugs (e.g., atorvastatin) is to:
A) Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
B) Bind bile acids in the intestine
C) Inhibit cholesterol absorption
D) Activate lipoprotein lipase

Answer: A) Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
Statins work by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in the
cholesterol biosynthesis pathway in the liver. This reduction in hepatic cholesterol synthesis
leads to an upregulation of LDL receptors and increased clearance of LDL from the blood.



14. A patient experiencing an acute asthma attack would most likely be prescribed which drug
for rapid relief?
A) Salmeterol (Serevent)
B) Montelukast (Singulair)
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