ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM RETAKE (NGN
VERSION) STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam (NGN) - 100-Question Study Guide
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV
twice daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is
effective?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic. The primary therapeutic effect
is increased urine output, which reduces fluid volume and eases the
heart's workload.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which client statement is the MOST concerning?
A. "I have a sharp pain in my chest when I take a deep breath."
B. "I feel lightheaded and like I can't get enough air."
C. "My calf has been swollen and tender for a few days."
D. "I've been coughing up a small amount of blood."
Rationale: While all are signs of a PE, feeling lightheaded and dyspneic
indicates significant hypoxia and potential hemodynamic instability,
which is an immediate threat to life.
,3. A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer 1 mg of Glucagon IM.
B. Provide 4 oz of fruit juice or 15 grams of a simple carbohydrate.
C. Notify the physician immediately.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
*Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the first action is
to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate (15-20 grams) to rapidly raise the
blood glucose level.*
4. When using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment,
Recommendation) communication tool, which component would
include the client's vital signs and current physical assessment?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
D. Recommendation
Rationale: The "Assessment" component of SBAR is where the nurse
provides an analysis of the current situation based on objective and
subjective data, including vital signs and physical findings.
5. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and
pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which
diagnostic test is the gold standard for confirming this condition?
A. D-dimer
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT Pulmonary Angiography
D. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
Rationale: CT Pulmonary Angiography is the most accurate test for
,diagnosing a pulmonary embolism as it directly visualizes clots in the
pulmonary arteries.
6. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood
cells. Which action is essential before initiating the transfusion?
A. Prime the IV tubing with a 5% Dextrose solution.
B. Have two licensed nurses verify the blood product and client
identification at the bedside.
C. Ensure the client has a central line in place.
D. Administer a stat dose of IV Furosemide.
Rationale: A two-nurse verification at the bedside is a critical safety step
to prevent transfusion errors and reactions.
7. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition
(TPN). The nurse should monitor for which primary complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Urinary retention
D. Hypotension
Rationale: TPN solutions are high in dextrose, which can lead to
hyperglycemia. Blood glucose must be monitored frequently.
8. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with osteoporosis awaiting discharge.
B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the ankles.
C. A client with pneumonia whose SpO2 dropped from 95% to 88% on
room air.
D. A client with a knee replacement complaining of 4/10 pain.
Rationale: A drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates acute respiratory distress
and hypoxia, which is a priority over the other stable clients.
, 9. A client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a medication.
After ensuring a patent airway, what is the nurse's priority medication
to administer?
A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. Albuterol (Proventil)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
D. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it
rapidly counteracts bronchospasm, hypotension, and vascular collapse.
10. The nurse is teaching a client about Warfarin (Coumadin). Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid activities that could cause me to bleed or bruise."
B. "I will eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
D. "I will have my blood levels checked regularly."
Rationale: Vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, antagonizes
Warfarin. A consistent diet is key; sudden increases in Vitamin K intake
can decrease the drug's effectiveness.
11. A client with a head injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score
of 7. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. The client is alert and oriented.
B. The client is in a coma.
C. The client has a mild brain injury.
D. The client is verbally responsive but confused.
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or below indicates a coma. The scale ranges
from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake).
VERSION) STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam (NGN) - 100-Question Study Guide
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV
twice daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is
effective?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic. The primary therapeutic effect
is increased urine output, which reduces fluid volume and eases the
heart's workload.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which client statement is the MOST concerning?
A. "I have a sharp pain in my chest when I take a deep breath."
B. "I feel lightheaded and like I can't get enough air."
C. "My calf has been swollen and tender for a few days."
D. "I've been coughing up a small amount of blood."
Rationale: While all are signs of a PE, feeling lightheaded and dyspneic
indicates significant hypoxia and potential hemodynamic instability,
which is an immediate threat to life.
,3. A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer 1 mg of Glucagon IM.
B. Provide 4 oz of fruit juice or 15 grams of a simple carbohydrate.
C. Notify the physician immediately.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
*Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the first action is
to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate (15-20 grams) to rapidly raise the
blood glucose level.*
4. When using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment,
Recommendation) communication tool, which component would
include the client's vital signs and current physical assessment?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
D. Recommendation
Rationale: The "Assessment" component of SBAR is where the nurse
provides an analysis of the current situation based on objective and
subjective data, including vital signs and physical findings.
5. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and
pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which
diagnostic test is the gold standard for confirming this condition?
A. D-dimer
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT Pulmonary Angiography
D. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
Rationale: CT Pulmonary Angiography is the most accurate test for
,diagnosing a pulmonary embolism as it directly visualizes clots in the
pulmonary arteries.
6. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood
cells. Which action is essential before initiating the transfusion?
A. Prime the IV tubing with a 5% Dextrose solution.
B. Have two licensed nurses verify the blood product and client
identification at the bedside.
C. Ensure the client has a central line in place.
D. Administer a stat dose of IV Furosemide.
Rationale: A two-nurse verification at the bedside is a critical safety step
to prevent transfusion errors and reactions.
7. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition
(TPN). The nurse should monitor for which primary complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Urinary retention
D. Hypotension
Rationale: TPN solutions are high in dextrose, which can lead to
hyperglycemia. Blood glucose must be monitored frequently.
8. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with osteoporosis awaiting discharge.
B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the ankles.
C. A client with pneumonia whose SpO2 dropped from 95% to 88% on
room air.
D. A client with a knee replacement complaining of 4/10 pain.
Rationale: A drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates acute respiratory distress
and hypoxia, which is a priority over the other stable clients.
, 9. A client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a medication.
After ensuring a patent airway, what is the nurse's priority medication
to administer?
A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. Albuterol (Proventil)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
D. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it
rapidly counteracts bronchospasm, hypotension, and vascular collapse.
10. The nurse is teaching a client about Warfarin (Coumadin). Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid activities that could cause me to bleed or bruise."
B. "I will eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
D. "I will have my blood levels checked regularly."
Rationale: Vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, antagonizes
Warfarin. A consistent diet is key; sudden increases in Vitamin K intake
can decrease the drug's effectiveness.
11. A client with a head injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score
of 7. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. The client is alert and oriented.
B. The client is in a coma.
C. The client has a mild brain injury.
D. The client is verbally responsive but confused.
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or below indicates a coma. The scale ranges
from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake).
