Treatment 2026
65th Edition
Author(s)Maxine A. Papadakis; Michael
W. Rabow; Kenneth R. McQuaid; Paul L.
Nadler; Erika Leemann Price
TEST BANK
Ch. 1 — Disease Prevention & Health Promotion.
books.google.com
1) Reference
Ch. 1 — Disease Prevention & Health Promotion.
books.google.com
Question Stem
A 52-year-old man with no prior cardiovascular disease presents
for routine health maintenance. His 10-year ASCVD risk
,estimate is 7.2%. He has LDL 138 mg/dL and blood pressure
128/78 mm Hg. According to CMDT prevention guidance, which
intervention is the most appropriate next step to reduce his
long-term cardiovascular risk?
Options
A. Start atorvastatin moderate-intensity therapy.
B. Begin aspirin 81 mg daily for primary prevention.
C. Start high-intensity statin therapy.
D. Defer pharmacotherapy; recommend lifestyle modification
only.
Correct Answer
A
Rationales
• A (Correct): CMDT recommends considering moderate-
intensity statin therapy for primary prevention in adults
with intermediate (≈5–20%) 10-year ASCVD risk and LDL
above treatment thresholds; moderate-intensity statin
addresses his LDL and ASCVD risk. books.google.com
• B: Low-dose aspirin for primary prevention is no longer
routinely recommended for many adults because bleeding
risk often outweighs benefit; CMDT reserves aspirin for
select high-risk individuals. books.google.com
• C: High-intensity statin is generally for those with higher
estimated risk (≥20%) or established ASCVD; this patient’s
risk favors moderate intensity first. books.google.com
, • D: Lifestyle modification is foundational but CMDT
suggests adding statin therapy when risk and LDL meet
thresholds rather than deferring medication alone.
books.google.com
Teaching Point
Moderate-intensity statins are appropriate for many with
intermediate 10-year ASCVD risk.
Citation (Simplified APA)
Papadakis et al. (2025). CURRENT Medical Diagnosis &
Treatment 2026 (65th Ed.). Ch. 1. books.google.com
2) Reference
Ch. 1 — Disease Prevention & Health Promotion.
books.google.com
Question Stem
A 24-year-old woman asks about HPV vaccination; she reports
no prior immunizations and is sexually active. According to
CMDT prevention recommendations, which statement is the
best counseling point?
Options
A. HPV vaccination provides benefit only if given before sexual
debut.
B. Vaccination is recommended up to age 26 and may be given
through age 45 after shared decision-making.
C. Single-dose vaccination is sufficient for all adults over 18.
, D. HPV vaccination is contraindicated if the patient is sexually
active.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• B (Correct): CMDT states HPV vaccine is most effective
when given prior to HPV exposure but recommendations
support routine vaccination up to age 26 and individual
consideration up to age 45. books.google.com
• A: While earlier vaccination yields greater preventive
benefit, some protection is still possible after sexual debut;
this statement is too absolute. books.google.com
• C: CMDT does not state single-dose schedules apply
universally for all adults; dosing varies by age and product.
books.google.com
• D: Sexual activity is not a contraindication to HPV
vaccination; prior exposure may reduce but does not
eliminate potential benefit. books.google.com
Teaching Point
HPV vaccine: routine to age 26; consider shared decision-
making for ages 27–45.
Citation (Simplified APA)
Papadakis et al. (2025). CURRENT Medical Diagnosis &
Treatment 2026 (65th Ed.). Ch. 1. books.google.com