Introductory Human Physiology - Coursera Quiz Exam Pack (100% Correct) - $3.49   Add to cart

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Introductory Human Physiology - Coursera Quiz Exam Pack (100% Correct)

Homeostasis and Endocrine System Exam 1. Even though no food had entered her stomach, the smell and sight of food caused Jane’s stomach to secrete more acid. This is an example of: 2. Jerry is a normal 24 year old male with an intracellular fluid (ICF) volume of 24 L. What is the volume of his plasma? 3. In a normal female, plasma levels of the hormone cortisol are highest in the early morning and half maximal at 4:00 in the afternoon. This is an example of: Correct antagonistic control tonic control negative control feed-forward control Correct 3L 9 L 12 L 6 L tonic control antagonistic control autocrine control 4. Estrogen acts in the breast to increase the growth of the glands and the number of estrogen receptors in these cells. This is an example of: 5. Potassium ions in the _____ are in equilibrium with potassium ions in the _____. 6. A membrane that is permeable only to water separates two solutions of glucose dissolved in water. On one side (A) the glucose concentration is 0.1 g/ml. On the other side (B) the glucose is concentration is 0.6 g/ml. Initially the rate of water flow is: Correct circadian rhythm Correct positive feedback negative feedback antagonistic control tonic control Correct ECF; ICF IVF; ISF IVF; ICF ISF; ICF zero (no flow in either direction) more rapid from side A to side B 7. Larry drank 2 cups of hypotonic soup. How did the water in the soup distribute into the intracellular (ICF) and extracellular (ECF) compartments? 8. The single most important factor that determines whether a given cell can be regulated by the steroid hormone aldosterone is the presence in this cell of: 9. In obesity related Type II diabetes, levels of the peptide hormone, insulin, are either normal or elevated, yet target cells are less sensitive to the binding of insulin. This suggests that the target cells: Correct more rapid from side B to side A the same in both directions Correct net water movement from ICF to ECF but less than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion. no change in water distribution between ICF and ECF. water will distribute equally (1/2 and 1/2) between ICF and ECF. net water movement from ECF to ICF greater than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion. Correct heat shock proteins specific aldosterone receptors active transporters for aldosterone cAMP and ADP 4/5 10. What is the maximum transport rate (T ) of the carrier depicted below? 11. When steroid hormones bind to their target cell receptors: Correct have excess intracellular glucose are impermeable to insulin cannot convert insulin to an active form have a defect in their receptor signaling pathway m Correct 20 10 4 8 membrane bound receptors are activated Correct ion channels open transcription of DNA is stimulated the Na+/K+ ATPase becomes active The Nervous System Exam 1. Which glial cells support neurons metabolically? 2. Which of the following will change the equilibrium potential for Na+? 3. Depolarization of the membrane means: Correct oligodendrocytes microglial cells Schwann cells astrocytes Correct the resting membrane potential of the cell the ion channels that are open in the cell the concentration of the Na+ on the inside of the cell versus the outside the gating properties of the Na+ channels there are more negative charges on the inside of the cell compared to the outside that K+ channels are letting K+ into the cell 4. Graded potentials: 5. Which of the following is TRUE about myelination? 6. A neurotransmitter would have a greater chance of starting an action potential in a postsynaptic neuron by: Correct that the membrane potential is less negative than the resting potential that the membrane potential is more negative than the resting potential Correct have refractory periods undergo spatial and temporal summation are self-propagating do not occur until the membrane reaches threshold Correct It slows conduction along dendrites It occurs only in the central nervous system It acts to electrically insulate synapses ONLY It is necessary for saltatory conduction closing Na+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane causing a graded depolarization in the post-synaptic membrane 7. The portion of the nervous system that integrates sensory information is the: 8. The branch of the efferent nervous system that stimulates organs under conditions of rest and digestion is the: Correct causing a graded hyperpolarization in the post-synaptic membrane opening K+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane Correct afferent nervous system central nervous system parasympathetic nervous system somatic nervous system sympathetic nervous system Correct sympathetic nervous system central nervous system parasympathetic nervous system somatic nervous system afferent nervous system The Senses and the Somatic Nervous System Exam 1. In the eye, most of the refraction of light occurs in the: 2. The structure that is surrounded by ciliary muscles. 3. The frequency of a sound determines: Correct lens retina cornea rods cones Correct lens cones rods cornea retina 4. The otolith organs: 5. Contraction of the ciliary muscles of the eye: 6. Stimulation of the afferent neuron coming from a skeletal muscle spindle receptor leads to: Correct the loudness of a sound the direction of hair cell stereocilia vibration the portion of the basilar membrane that vibrates the vibration of the tectorial membrane Correct sense based on the movement of fluid sense rotation of the head include three circular canals sense linear acceleration Correct allows the lens to become more spherical flattens the lens does not affect the shape of the lens relaxation of the muscle and contraction of the antagonistic muscle 7. The sensory receptor that detects skeletal muscle tension is: 8. The cell bodies of alpha motor neurons controlling the skeletal muscles of the body are found in: Correct relaxation of a single muscle contraction of the muscle and relaxation of the antagonistic muscle stimulation of a single muscle Correct the muscle spindle receptor gamma motor neurons the Golgi tendon organ nociceptors Correct the ventral horn of the spinal cord the dorsal root ganglia outside the spinal cord sensory nerves Muscle Exam 1. After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would the first twitch differ? 2. After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials? 3. During muscle contraction, the portion of the sarcomere that shortens is: Correct the twitch would last the same amount of time the twitch would be shorter the twitch would produce more tension the twitch would last longer Correct fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated fiber fused tetanus would be reached later than an untreated fiber the myosin filaments 4. Which of the following is the typical order of motor unit recruitment? 5. Which factor regulates cross-bridge formation in skeletal muscle? 6. Which of the following types of muscles have sufficient numbers of gap junctions between fibers to propagate action potentials between cells? Correct the actin filaments the actin only band (I band) the myosin band (A band) Correct slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, fast-glycolytic fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic Correct amino acid concentration in the cytoplasm glucose concentration in the cytoplasm glycogen concentration in the cytoplasm Ca+2 concentration in the cytoplasm both cardiac muscle and single-unit smooth muscle 7. The dominant mechanism for the removal of Ca from the cytosol following contraction of the cardiac muscle cell is the: 8. Smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that smooth muscle does NOT contain: 9. In smooth muscle cells, a pacemaker potential differs from a graded potential because pacemaker potentials: Correct single-unit smooth muscle only multi-unit smooth muscle only cardiac muscle only both cardiac muscle and multi-unit smooth muscle 2+ Correct Na+/Ca+2 exchanger SR Ca+2 release channel (ryanodine receptor) L type Ca+2 channel SR Ca+2 ATPase Correct dense bodies troponin–tropomyosin complexes thin filaments myosin ATPase activity Correct activate with the influx (entry) of Clactivate with the efflux of Na+ always reach threshold vary in size Cardiovascular System Exam TOTAL POINTS 12 1. Ventricular repolarization in the human heart: 1 point 2. Which changes will occur in the fast action potential of a normal heart (depicted below) as the heart rate increases from 70 to 150 beats per minute? 1 point 3. 1 point begins in the atria and travels in the same direction as the depolarization wave. results from phase 2 of the fast action potential. is represented by the T wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG). is represented by the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram (ECG) duration of phase 0 will increase. duration of phase 2 will decrease. duration of phase 1 will increase. absolute refractory period will lengthen. Which is TRUE of the cardiac pacemaker cell action potential shown below? 4. AV valves of the heart open and close because of: 1 point 5. The region of the heart that normally has the highest rate of spontaneous action potentials is the: 1 point Repolarization in Phase 3 is due to potassium efflux (exit) from the cell. Phase 2 depolarization is caused by an increase in sodium influx (entry) into the cell. Slow depolarization in phase 4 is due to calcium efflux (exit) from the cell. Phase 3 is caused by the opening of the funny sodium channels. nervous impulses to papillary muscles. passive recoil of valves. changes in pressure in adjacent chambers. mechanical stretching of the fibers attached to the valves as the myocardium contracts and relaxes. 6. In an electrocardiogram (ECG) shown below, the atrio-ventricular (AV) conduction time is reflected in the: 1 point 7. Due to differences in opposing forces, there is usually a net _____ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries coupled with net ___ at the venous end. 1 point 8. Dilation of the arterioles in a single organ would lead to: 1 point Purkinje fibers Atrioventricular (AV) node Bundle of HIS Sinoatrial (SA) node P-wave duration T-wave duration QT interval PR interval absorption; filtration filtration; absorption 4/5 9. Increasing venous return increases cardiac output by: 1 point 10. What is the ejection fraction for the left ventricle depicted in the P-V loop depicted below? 1 point an increase in pressure in the large arteries of that organ. an increase in capillary pressure in that organ. a decrease in both capillary and venous pressures in that organ. a decrease in blood flow to that organ resulting from the decreased blood pressure. decreasing end diastolic volume increasing the stroke volume decreasing the ejection fraction increasing heart rate 100% 80% 60% 50% 11. Contrast the following: (i) velocity of blood flow in capillaries (ii) velocity of blood flow in aorta 1 point 12. Joan rose quickly from her bed to answer the front doorbell. In response to rising, her baroreceptors: 1 point (ii) > (i) (i) = or nearly = (ii) (i) > (ii) decreased firing had no change in their firing rate increased firing Respiratory System Exam 1. The volume of air inspired by a person at rest is the: 2. The lung volume that increases in a person with obstructive lung disease is the: 3. The volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration is the: Correct total lung capacity vital capacity inspiratory reserve volume tidal volume residual volume Correct residual volume vital capacity inspiratory reserve volume tidal volume total lung capacity vital capacity 4. Inspiratory capacity minus tidal volume equals: 5. The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal exhalation is the: Correct residual volume tidal volume total lung capacity inspiratory reserve volume Correct residual volume total lung capacity vital capacity tidal volume inspiratory reserve volume Correct residual volume tidal volume vital capacity total lung capacity inspiratory reserve volume 6. Compliance is: 7. Air flows into the lung when: 8. The intrapleural pressure is determined by: 9. FEV1/FVC (Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/Forced vital capacity) is less than 80% in: Correct decreased in a person with emphysema increased in a person with restrictive lung disease the change in lung volume per unit change in transpulmonary pressure Correct PA equals Patm PA is less than Patm PA is greater than Patm Correct atmospheric pressure PaO2 the elastic recoil of the lung patients with restrictive lung disease patients with obstructive lung disease 4/5 10. Which breathing pattern gives the greatest alveolar ventilation (ml/min) in a person with an anatomic dead space of 150 ml? 11. During expiration, the P CO : 12. When the O – hemoglobin curve shifts to the left it means: 13. Correct Correct 450 ml tidal volume, 12 breaths per minute 200 ml tidal volume, 30 breaths per minute 1150 ml tidal volume, 5 breaths per minute A 2 Correct decreases increases stays the same 2 Correct that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has decreased that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has increased nothing in terms of hemoglobin affinity for oxygen With increasing plasma H+ concentration, minute ventilation will: 14. A situation that may lead to respiratory acidosis would be: 15. Hypoxia due to cyanide poisoning results in: Correct remain the same increase decrease Correct vomiting mild exercise hypoventilation hyperventilation Correct ischemic hypoxia hypoxic hypoxia anemic hypoxia histotoxic hypoxia The Endocrine System Exam 1. A 42 year old mother has an enlarged thyroid gland and elevated levels of triiodothyronine in her blood. Predict her heart rate. 2. In chronic iodine deficiency, the thyroid gland: 3. In response to stress, cortisol and _____, increase lipolysis of fat. Correct Bradycardia (below 60 bpm) Tachycardia (above 100 bpm) Normal (60-100 bmp) Correct shrinks due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone. enlarges due to elevated secretion of thyroid hormone. enlarges due to elevated secretion of TSH. remains unchanged. Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1) Aldosterone Epinephrine Thyroxine (T4) 4. Athletes who inject high doses of human growth hormone (GH), exhibit increased muscle mass and increased blood levels of: 5. In response to an increase in blood Na+ levels, the posterior pituitary secretes: 6. Excess secretion of ACTH can cause beard growth and deepening of the voice in a female because of the secretion of: Correct Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Correct Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1) Epinephrine Triiodothyronine (T3) Thyroxine (T4) Correct Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1) Epinephrine Aldosterone Epinephrine Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1) 7. In humans the normal secretion of ACTH is correctly described as: 8. Which of the following initiates its biological effects by activating cell membrane bound receptors? 9. Which of the following findings are most likely present in an individual with high circulating levels of aldosterone due to a tumor? Correct Triiodothyronine (T3) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) Correct decreased by the weak androgen DHEA pulsatile and circadian increased by cortisol decreased by low plasma glucose Correct thyroxine (T4) cortisol epinephrine aldosterone no change in either K+ blood concentration or ECF volume 4/5 10. During the fed (anabolic) state, nervous tissue derives most of its metabolic energy from: 11. During the fasting state, plasma glucose levels decrease to < 80 mg/dL leading to secretion of ____ from alpha cells of the pancreatic islet. 12. Insulin secretion from the pancreas is inhibited by an increase in: Correct decreased ECF volume hyperkalemia (increased blood K+ levels) hypokalemia (decreased blood K+ levels) Correct fatty acids ketones amino acids glucose Correct growth hormone glucagon cortisol insulin blood glucose levels above 130 mg/dL. 13. In skeletal muscle, insulin activated receptors: Correct plasma amino acids intracellular ATP within the beta islet cells. plasma epinephrine levels. Correct open ATP gated K+ channels to speed repolarization. recruit glucose transporters to the plasma membrane. inhibit the entry of glucose. are located in the nucleus. The Reproductive System Exam 1. In the male and female, inhibin B provides a negative feedback signal which regulates: 2. Puberty does not normally occur in humans under the age of 8 years, because before that age: 3. The phase of the uterus is directly determined by hormones released by the: Correct LH ONLY GnRH ONLY LH, FSH and GnRH FSH ONLY Correct the hypothalamus is unresponsive to gonadal steroids the ovaries and testes cannot secrete gonadal steroids the hypothalamus is very sensitive to negative feedback by gonadal steroids the pituitary secretes excess amounts of gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) pituitary hypothalamus ovary 4. If the progesterone receptor gene is inactive in a female of reproductive age, you would expect: 5. Human chorionic gonadotrophin, hCG, produced by the forming embryo, is essential for pregnancy to occur because: 6. Inactivation of the estrogen receptor in a human male would: Correct Correct decreased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus increased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus no change in the expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus Correct it allows the corpus luteum to continue producing estrogen and progesterone it acts as a growth hormone for the developing baby it can be detected in a woman’s urine Correct prevent closure of the epiphyseal plate, leading to excess height. accelerate closure of the epiphyseal plate, restricting height. decrease bone density (osteoporosis). 7. In men, an inactivating mutation in the LH receptor would most likely cause: 8. High levels of testosterone were administered in a clinical trial to evaluate various endpoints of testosterone action. The results showed that treated males had: Correct an absence of secondary male characteristics increased sperm production low circulating testosterone levels but no change in intra-testicular testosterone levels Correct decreased sperm count decreased levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) increased secretion of testosterone by the testes increased sperm count The Gastrointestinal System Exam 1. The most effective inhibitor of human gastric acid secretion is: 2. The arrival of food in the lumen of the stomach directly increases the secretion of ______ which acts to increase gastric acid secretion. 3. The main signal in the stomach lumen that results in inhibition of gastrin secretion is: Correct gastrin somatostatin a proton pump inhibitor a histamine H receptor inhibitor 2 Correct somatostatin. gastrin. pepsin. histamine. histamine. proteins and amino acids. protons (H ). + 4. The main signal in the small intestine lumen that results in increased pancreatic bicarbonate ion (HCO ) secretion is: 5. In the stomach lumen, pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by: 6. After eating a steak, the amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the pH in the human stomach: Correct somatostatin. 3 - Correct protons (H ). + proteins and amino acids. cholecystokinin (CCK). secretin. Correct carbonic anhydrase hydrochloric acid (HCl) trypsin bicarbonate (HCO3-) decrease in the first 60 minutes. stay relatively constant in the first 60 minutes increase in the first 60 minutes 7. The secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO ) by the pancreas increases in response to: 8. What hormone stimulates the secretion of inactive enzymes (zymogens) from the pancreas? 9. Vomiting uses primarily: Correct 3 - Correct secretin gastrin glucagon like peptide -1 somatostatin Correct histamine cholecystokinin (CCK) gastrin secretin mass movement. contraction of respiratory and abdominal skeletal muscles. the migrating motor complex (MMC) contraction of the inner smooth muscle mass to generate reverse peristalsis. 10. Fats from the diet cross the intestine epithelial cells to enter the ____ as chylomicrons. 11. The electrical depolarizations that occur rhythmically in the intestine in the fed state are called: 12. The mechanism of absorption of glucose into the body is: Correct Correct blood circulation lymphatic circulation Correct slow waves. mass movements. migrating myoelectric complexes (MMCs). action potentials. Correct secondary active transport primary active transport. simple diffusion. facilitated diffusion. The Urinary System Exam 1. Renal threshold of substance X refers to the plasma concentration of X where: 2. Jane donated 1 liter of blood to the Red Cross this morning. To maintain volume homeostasis, plasma levels of _____ increased. 3. A normal human triples his dietary salt (NaCl) intake over two weeks. This will lead to: Correct all of the renal transporters for X are saturated. maximal glomerular filtration of X occurs. the secretion of X equals the reabsorption of X. Correct antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ONLY atrial natriuretic factor ONLY aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone aldosterone ONLY an increase in plasma renin activity an increase in plasma volume an increase in plasma aldosterone concentration an increase in plasma pH 4. Activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone system (RAAS) will: 5. In a normal kidney, if drug X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and its clearance is greater than that of inulin, then: 6. When the mean arterial pressure (MAP) increases from 90 mmHg to 100 mmHg in a normal kidney, renal blood flow: Correct Correct decrease the filtrate pressure within Bowman’s space. increase the filtrate pressure within the renal tubule. increase the oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillary. decrease hydrostatic pressure in the vasa recta. Correct Drug X cannot be compared to inulin. Drug X is insoluble in urine. Drug X is secreted by the renal tubules. Drug X is reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Correct remains unchanged decreases increases 7. Use the following values to calculate the filtration pressure within a glomerulus. Hydrostatic pressure, 45 mm Hg; Bowman’s capsule fluid pressure, 15 mm Hg; Oncotic pressure, 20 mmHg. 8. Increased delivery of Na+ to the principal cells of the renal tubule leads to increased: 9. In a normal kidney, tubular fluid (filtrate) is always isotonic in the: 10. Correct 40 mm Hg 10 mm Hg 80 mm Hg 30 mm Hg Correct secretion of Na+ reabsorption of Na+ and K+ secretion of K+ Correct Ureter Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Collecting duct (CD) Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL) Inhibition of the co-transporter for sodium, chloride and potassium in the ____ will increase the amount of urine excreted. 11. In normal kidneys, most of the filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed within the: 12. John drank 2 liters of water in 1 hour. This lowered his blood osmolality to 240 mOsM (normal 290 mOsM) and caused a rapid increase in plasma levels of: Correct Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Collecting duct (CD) Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL) Thin Loop of Henle Correct Collecting duct (CD) Thin Loop of Henle Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Correct antidiuretic hormone (ADH) atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) aldosterone

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