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AAPD Remembered Exam Complete Questions With Correct Answers || AAPD Study Guide Set Well Noted Answers

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AAPD Remembered Exam Complete Questions With Correct Answers || AAPD Study Guide Set Well Noted Answers .In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Answer-plaque on maxillary anteriors .A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? - Answer-age 2-5 .In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC status? - Answer-White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface .Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer-1) Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels .Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer-1) Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on teeth .Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Answer-1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has dental home/regular dental care .Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are responsible for forming. - Answer-1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural plate. 2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel) .Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Answer-6 weeks .From what structure does dental lamina form? - Answer-basal layer of oral epithelium .What structures form from dental lamina? - Answer-tooth buds .At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - Answer-1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years .Name the components of the tooth bud. - Answer-enamel organ, dental papilla, dental sac .Name the components of the enamel organ. - Answer-Inner enamel epithelium (concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center) .The dental papilla forms from ________. - Answer-neural crest .Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Answer-Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage, advanced bell stage .Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Answer-inner and outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum) .The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Answer-rests of Malassez .Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. - Answer-Tooth number .Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. - Answer-size, proportion, number, twinning .Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of ____________. - Answer-anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI, DD) .Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to _____________. - Answer-Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum .Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Answer-males (2:1) .Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Answer-permanent dentition (5:1) .Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Answer-maxilla (9:1) .Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Answer-3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar .Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Answer-Apert's, cleidocranial dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down syndrome .Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Answer-supernumerary teeth, cleft palate, delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly, craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition .Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Answer-supernumerary teeth, delayed development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle, craniosynostosis .Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Answer-supernumerary teeth, osteomas of the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps .Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Answer-supernumerary teeth, midface hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos .Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Answer-port-wine stains which follow the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects, bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas .Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Answer-supernumerary teeth and/or hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue .Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Answer-supernumerary teeth, mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia .Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - Answer-hypodontia, conical crowns, deficient alveolar ridge .Describe features of achondroplasia - Answer-hypodontia, short stature, frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia .Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - Answer-hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of maxillary sulcus, premature teeth .Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - Answer-hypodontia, conical crowns, delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin, hyperpigmentation .Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - Answer-Hypodontia, midface hypoplasia, delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation .Describe features of Seckel syndrome - Answer-hypodontia, microcephaly, midface hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes .Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - Answer-Hypodontia, prominent lips, microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor .Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - Answer-Primary .Describe twinning. - Answer-Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which results in a supernumerary mirror image tooth.

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AAPD Remembered Exam Complete
Questions With Correct Answers ||
AAPD Study Guide Set Well Noted
Answers



\.In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Answer- plaque on maxillary
anteriors



\.A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? - Answer-
age 2-5



\.In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC status? -
Answer- White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface



\.Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer- 1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with a bottle
containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child has active white
spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels



\.Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer- 1) Child has
special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on teeth



\.Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Answer- 1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated
drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated

,toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has dental
home/regular dental care



\.Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - Answer- 1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural plate. 2)
bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)



\.Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Answer- 6 weeks



\.From what structure does dental lamina form? - Answer- basal layer of oral epithelium



\.What structures form from dental lamina? - Answer- tooth buds



\.At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the permanent
2nd molar begin initiation? - Answer- 1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years



\.Name the components of the tooth bud. - Answer- enamel organ, dental papilla, dental sac



\.Name the components of the enamel organ. - Answer- Inner enamel epithelium (concavity),
outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)



\.The dental papilla forms from ________. - Answer- neural crest



\.Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Answer- Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage,
advanced bell stage

,\.Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Answer- inner and outer
enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)



\.The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Answer- rests of Malassez



\.Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. -
Answer- Tooth number



\.Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. -
Answer- size, proportion, number, twinning



\.Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - Answer- anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI, DD)



\.Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to _____________. -
Answer- Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum



\.Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Answer- males (2:1)



\.Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Answer- permanent
dentition (5:1)



\.Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Answer- maxilla (9:1)



\.Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Answer- 3rd
molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar

, \.Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Answer- Apert's, cleidocranial
dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Orofaciodigital
syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down syndrome



\.Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Answer- supernumerary teeth, cleft palate,
delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition



\.Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Answer- supernumerary teeth, delayed
development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis



\.Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Answer- supernumerary teeth, osteomas of the
jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps



\.Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Answer- supernumerary teeth, midface
hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos



\.Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Answer- port-wine stains which follow the
trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform calcifications
of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects, bleeding and gingival
hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas



\.Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Answer- supernumerary teeth and/or
hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue



\.Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Answer- supernumerary teeth,
mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia
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