Burns’ Pediatric Primary Care (8th Ed.) — Complete Chapter-
by-Chapter Test Bank: Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
(New Edition)
Question 1:
A 4-year-old child presents for a well visit. The nurse
practitioner counsels the family about injury prevention (car
seats, water safety) and routine immunizations. Which
statement best describes the clinician’s activity in this visit?
A. Tertiary prevention — managing complications after an
injury.
B. Secondary prevention — screening to detect a disorder early.
C. Primary prevention — actions to prevent disease or injury
before it occurs.
D. Quaternary prevention — preventing unnecessary
medicalization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention includes interventions that
,prevent a disease or injury before it occurs (immunizations,
safety counseling). Secondary prevention is early
detection/screening (e.g., hearing/scoliosis screening). Tertiary
prevention manages established disease to reduce
complications. Quaternary prevention refers to avoiding
overmedicalization — not the primary aim here.
Question 2:
A pediatric nurse practitioner coordinates care for a 2-year-old
with chronic otitis media and developmental delay by arranging
audiology, early intervention, and regular follow-ups. Which
role of primary care does this best illustrate?
A. Episodic symptom management.
B. Care coordination and continuity (medical home).
C. Inpatient acute care management.
D. Tertiary surgical referral only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary care in pediatrics emphasizes the medical-
home functions of continuous, coordinated, family-centered
care and connecting families to community resources. Episodic
care and inpatient care are narrower roles. While surgical
referral may be needed, this option misses the comprehensive
coordination shown.
Question 3:
A 16-year-old with type 1 diabetes is preparing to transfer to
,adult endocrinology. According to best practice transition
principles, which action should the primary care team take first?
A. Discharge the patient abruptly on their 18th birthday.
B. Begin transition planning early and assess transition
readiness.
C. Wait until the patient requests a referral.
D. Transfer all records without discussing goals with the youth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Best practice (Got Transition/Six Core Elements)
recommends starting transition planning early, assessing
readiness, and developing a written plan. Abrupt discharge or
unilateral transfer without preparation increases risk of care
gaps. Waiting for patient request is passive and not
recommended.
Question 4:
A mother brings her 8-month-old for vaccination and reports
high stress and recent housing instability. The clinician asks
about family stressors and offers help with resources. This
approach most directly addresses which pediatric concept?
A. The Two-Generation (dual patient) model.
B. Sole focus on the infant only.
C. Exclusive biomedical risk assessment.
D. Emergency room triage only.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The two-generation/dual patient model recognizes
, that caregivers’ health and social context affect child health;
primary care addresses family needs as part of child care. Sole
infant focus or purely biomedical approach misses social
determinants; ER triage is unrelated.
Question 5:
Which statement about Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)
is most accurate for pediatric primary care providers?
A. ACEs only affect mental health and have no impact on
physical health.
B. ACEs are cumulative and linked to long-term risks for chronic
physical and mental illness.
C. Screening for ACEs is universally contraindicated in primary
care.
D. Only child ACEs matter; caregiver ACEs are irrelevant.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research and AAP guidance indicate ACEs are
cumulative and associated with lifelong mental and physical
health risks; screening and trauma-informed approaches are
recommended with appropriate support. ACEs impact both
mental and physical health; caregiver ACEs also influence
parenting and child outcomes. Screening is not universally
contraindicated but requires resources and trauma-informed
follow-up.
by-Chapter Test Bank: Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
(New Edition)
Question 1:
A 4-year-old child presents for a well visit. The nurse
practitioner counsels the family about injury prevention (car
seats, water safety) and routine immunizations. Which
statement best describes the clinician’s activity in this visit?
A. Tertiary prevention — managing complications after an
injury.
B. Secondary prevention — screening to detect a disorder early.
C. Primary prevention — actions to prevent disease or injury
before it occurs.
D. Quaternary prevention — preventing unnecessary
medicalization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention includes interventions that
,prevent a disease or injury before it occurs (immunizations,
safety counseling). Secondary prevention is early
detection/screening (e.g., hearing/scoliosis screening). Tertiary
prevention manages established disease to reduce
complications. Quaternary prevention refers to avoiding
overmedicalization — not the primary aim here.
Question 2:
A pediatric nurse practitioner coordinates care for a 2-year-old
with chronic otitis media and developmental delay by arranging
audiology, early intervention, and regular follow-ups. Which
role of primary care does this best illustrate?
A. Episodic symptom management.
B. Care coordination and continuity (medical home).
C. Inpatient acute care management.
D. Tertiary surgical referral only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary care in pediatrics emphasizes the medical-
home functions of continuous, coordinated, family-centered
care and connecting families to community resources. Episodic
care and inpatient care are narrower roles. While surgical
referral may be needed, this option misses the comprehensive
coordination shown.
Question 3:
A 16-year-old with type 1 diabetes is preparing to transfer to
,adult endocrinology. According to best practice transition
principles, which action should the primary care team take first?
A. Discharge the patient abruptly on their 18th birthday.
B. Begin transition planning early and assess transition
readiness.
C. Wait until the patient requests a referral.
D. Transfer all records without discussing goals with the youth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Best practice (Got Transition/Six Core Elements)
recommends starting transition planning early, assessing
readiness, and developing a written plan. Abrupt discharge or
unilateral transfer without preparation increases risk of care
gaps. Waiting for patient request is passive and not
recommended.
Question 4:
A mother brings her 8-month-old for vaccination and reports
high stress and recent housing instability. The clinician asks
about family stressors and offers help with resources. This
approach most directly addresses which pediatric concept?
A. The Two-Generation (dual patient) model.
B. Sole focus on the infant only.
C. Exclusive biomedical risk assessment.
D. Emergency room triage only.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The two-generation/dual patient model recognizes
, that caregivers’ health and social context affect child health;
primary care addresses family needs as part of child care. Sole
infant focus or purely biomedical approach misses social
determinants; ER triage is unrelated.
Question 5:
Which statement about Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)
is most accurate for pediatric primary care providers?
A. ACEs only affect mental health and have no impact on
physical health.
B. ACEs are cumulative and linked to long-term risks for chronic
physical and mental illness.
C. Screening for ACEs is universally contraindicated in primary
care.
D. Only child ACEs matter; caregiver ACEs are irrelevant.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research and AAP guidance indicate ACEs are
cumulative and associated with lifelong mental and physical
health risks; screening and trauma-informed approaches are
recommended with appropriate support. ACEs impact both
mental and physical health; caregiver ACEs also influence
parenting and child outcomes. Screening is not universally
contraindicated but requires resources and trauma-informed
follow-up.
