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NSG 3100 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (2026/2027) – VERIFIED &
GRADED A+ STUDY GUIDE 100% CORRECT, ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient with heart failure who presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and crackles in the lungs. Which medication would most likely be
prescribed to reduce fluid overload?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Loop diuretic
D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: C. Loop diuretic
Rationale:
Loop diuretics such as furosemide are the first-line therapy to relieve fluid
overload in heart failure. They reduce pulmonary congestion and improve
breathing by removing excess fluid. ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are
important long-term therapies for reducing mortality but do not provide rapid
relief of fluid retention. Calcium channel blockers are not typically first-line for
heart failure and may worsen symptoms in reduced ejection fraction cases.
Question 2
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which condition is a
major contraindication for this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal impairment
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: B. Renal impairment
Rationale:
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with significant renal impairment due to
the increased risk of lactic acidosis. Monitoring kidney function is essential before
and during therapy. Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoporosis are not
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contraindications for metformin, though they may coexist with diabetes and
require separate management strategies.
Question 3
A patient taking warfarin is admitted for bleeding gums and bruising. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Hemoglobin
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. aPTT
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale:
Warfarin therapy is monitored using the International Normalized Ratio (INR).
Elevated INR levels indicate increased risk of bleeding. Hemoglobin may reflect
blood loss, and platelet count monitors clotting ability, but these are not specific
to warfarin therapy. aPTT is used to monitor heparin, not warfarin. Correct dosing
and patient education are vital to prevent complications.
Question 4
A patient presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, fever, and
elevated WBC count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: C. Appendicitis
Rationale:
Appendicitis is classically associated with right lower quadrant abdominal pain
(McBurney’s point), fever, and leukocytosis. Cholecystitis typically presents with
right upper quadrant pain, especially after fatty meals. Pancreatitis presents with
epigastric pain radiating to the back. Diverticulitis usually causes left lower
quadrant pain. Prompt surgical evaluation is required for appendicitis to prevent
rupture.
Question 5
A nurse administers nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain. Which side effect
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should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Headache
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: C. Headache
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which can lead to common side effects such as
headache, dizziness, flushing, and hypotension. Hypertension is unlikely because
nitroglycerin lowers blood pressure. Bradycardia is not a typical effect; reflex
tachycardia is more common. Hypoglycemia is unrelated to nitroglycerin use.
Nurses should educate patients that headaches are common and usually resolve
with continued therapy.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. Which oxygen delivery strategy is safest
to avoid suppressing the patient’s respiratory drive?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 100% FiO₂
D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
Correct Answer: B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
Rationale:
Patients with COPD may rely on hypoxic drive for respiration. Administering high
concentrations of oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory
depression. Low-flow oxygen, such as 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula, is safest and
effective. A non-rebreather or Venturi mask at high FiO₂ provides excessive
oxygen and can be dangerous. A simple face mask at 10 L/min also delivers high
concentrations inappropriate for COPD patients.
Question 7
Which laboratory result would indicate effective treatment in a patient with iron-
deficiency anemia?
A. Decreased hematocrit
B. Elevated serum ferritin
C. Increased MCV
D. Elevated INR
Correct Answer: B. Elevated serum ferritin
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Rationale:
Ferritin reflects the body’s iron stores. In iron-deficiency anemia, ferritin levels are
low; effective treatment with iron supplementation will normalize or elevate
ferritin. Hematocrit decreases in untreated anemia, not after correction. Mean
corpuscular volume (MCV) is typically low in iron deficiency and improves with
treatment but is not the primary marker. INR is unrelated to anemia
management.
Question 8
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates
digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
B. Tachycardia and palpitations
C. Hypertension and flushing
D. Headache and diarrhea
Correct Answer: A. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
Rationale:
Signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, anorexia,
confusion, and visual changes (yellow or green halos). Tachycardia and
hypertension are not typical. Headache and diarrhea may occur with many drugs
but are not specific. Regular monitoring of digoxin levels and electrolytes,
especially potassium, helps prevent toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Spider angiomas
B. Ascites
C. Esophageal varices with hematemesis
D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: C. Esophageal varices with hematemesis
Rationale:
Bleeding esophageal varices is a life-threatening emergency due to massive upper
GI hemorrhage risk. Immediate intervention is required, including airway
protection, IV fluids, blood products, and possible endoscopic therapy. Spider
angiomas, ascites, and jaundice are complications of cirrhosis but do not pose the
same immediate life threat.
NSG 3100 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (2026/2027) – VERIFIED &
GRADED A+ STUDY GUIDE 100% CORRECT, ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient with heart failure who presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and crackles in the lungs. Which medication would most likely be
prescribed to reduce fluid overload?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Loop diuretic
D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: C. Loop diuretic
Rationale:
Loop diuretics such as furosemide are the first-line therapy to relieve fluid
overload in heart failure. They reduce pulmonary congestion and improve
breathing by removing excess fluid. ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are
important long-term therapies for reducing mortality but do not provide rapid
relief of fluid retention. Calcium channel blockers are not typically first-line for
heart failure and may worsen symptoms in reduced ejection fraction cases.
Question 2
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which condition is a
major contraindication for this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal impairment
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: B. Renal impairment
Rationale:
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with significant renal impairment due to
the increased risk of lactic acidosis. Monitoring kidney function is essential before
and during therapy. Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoporosis are not
,2|Page
contraindications for metformin, though they may coexist with diabetes and
require separate management strategies.
Question 3
A patient taking warfarin is admitted for bleeding gums and bruising. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Hemoglobin
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. aPTT
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale:
Warfarin therapy is monitored using the International Normalized Ratio (INR).
Elevated INR levels indicate increased risk of bleeding. Hemoglobin may reflect
blood loss, and platelet count monitors clotting ability, but these are not specific
to warfarin therapy. aPTT is used to monitor heparin, not warfarin. Correct dosing
and patient education are vital to prevent complications.
Question 4
A patient presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, fever, and
elevated WBC count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: C. Appendicitis
Rationale:
Appendicitis is classically associated with right lower quadrant abdominal pain
(McBurney’s point), fever, and leukocytosis. Cholecystitis typically presents with
right upper quadrant pain, especially after fatty meals. Pancreatitis presents with
epigastric pain radiating to the back. Diverticulitis usually causes left lower
quadrant pain. Prompt surgical evaluation is required for appendicitis to prevent
rupture.
Question 5
A nurse administers nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain. Which side effect
,3|Page
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Headache
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: C. Headache
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which can lead to common side effects such as
headache, dizziness, flushing, and hypotension. Hypertension is unlikely because
nitroglycerin lowers blood pressure. Bradycardia is not a typical effect; reflex
tachycardia is more common. Hypoglycemia is unrelated to nitroglycerin use.
Nurses should educate patients that headaches are common and usually resolve
with continued therapy.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. Which oxygen delivery strategy is safest
to avoid suppressing the patient’s respiratory drive?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 100% FiO₂
D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
Correct Answer: B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
Rationale:
Patients with COPD may rely on hypoxic drive for respiration. Administering high
concentrations of oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory
depression. Low-flow oxygen, such as 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula, is safest and
effective. A non-rebreather or Venturi mask at high FiO₂ provides excessive
oxygen and can be dangerous. A simple face mask at 10 L/min also delivers high
concentrations inappropriate for COPD patients.
Question 7
Which laboratory result would indicate effective treatment in a patient with iron-
deficiency anemia?
A. Decreased hematocrit
B. Elevated serum ferritin
C. Increased MCV
D. Elevated INR
Correct Answer: B. Elevated serum ferritin
, 4|Page
Rationale:
Ferritin reflects the body’s iron stores. In iron-deficiency anemia, ferritin levels are
low; effective treatment with iron supplementation will normalize or elevate
ferritin. Hematocrit decreases in untreated anemia, not after correction. Mean
corpuscular volume (MCV) is typically low in iron deficiency and improves with
treatment but is not the primary marker. INR is unrelated to anemia
management.
Question 8
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates
digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
B. Tachycardia and palpitations
C. Hypertension and flushing
D. Headache and diarrhea
Correct Answer: A. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
Rationale:
Signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, anorexia,
confusion, and visual changes (yellow or green halos). Tachycardia and
hypertension are not typical. Headache and diarrhea may occur with many drugs
but are not specific. Regular monitoring of digoxin levels and electrolytes,
especially potassium, helps prevent toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Spider angiomas
B. Ascites
C. Esophageal varices with hematemesis
D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: C. Esophageal varices with hematemesis
Rationale:
Bleeding esophageal varices is a life-threatening emergency due to massive upper
GI hemorrhage risk. Immediate intervention is required, including airway
protection, IV fluids, blood products, and possible endoscopic therapy. Spider
angiomas, ascites, and jaundice are complications of cirrhosis but do not pose the
same immediate life threat.
