2025 Walden University NURS 6512 advanced health
assessment midterm exam new latest version with all
questions, answers and rationale
1. What is the primary purpose of collecting a health history during an assessment?
A. Diagnose medical conditions
B. Gather subjective data to guide the exam
C. Order diagnostic tests
D. Prescribe treatment plans
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The health history collects subjective data to identify symptoms, risk factors, and
patient context to guide the physical exam.
2. Which technique is used to assess for tactile fremitus?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tactile fremitus is assessed by palpating chest vibrations while the patient says
“ninety-nine.”
3. A patient reports chest pain that worsens with coughing. What condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Angina
B. Pleurisy
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Esophageal reflux
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pleuritic pain, exacerbated by coughing or breathing, suggests pleural inflammation,
as in pleurisy.
4. What is the standard sequence for a physical examination?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The standard sequence prevents altering findings, except in abdominal exams where
auscultation precedes palpation/percussion.
5. Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing pupil response to light?
A. Optic (II)
B. Oculomotor (III)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Facial (VII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (III) controls pupil constriction, tested with light.
,6. True or False: A positive Romberg test indicates normal balance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg test (swaying with eyes closed) suggests impaired proprioception
or cerebellar dysfunction.
7. Select all that apply: Which components are part of a comprehensive health history?
A. Chief complaint
B. Past surgical history
C. Social history
D. Laboratory results
E. Family history
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Health history includes chief complaint, past surgical history, social history, and
family history; lab results are objective data.
8. A patient has a barrel chest. What condition is associated with this finding?
A. Pneumonia
B. COPD
C. Heart failure
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Barrel chest, due to hyperinflation, is characteristic of COPD.
9. Which sound is expected when percussing healthy lung tissue?
A. Dullness
B. Resonance
C. Hyperresonance
D. Tympany
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Resonance is normal over healthy lungs; hyperresonance suggests air trapping,
dullness consolidation, and tympany hollow organs.
10. A patient reports unilateral facial drooping. Which cranial nerve should be assessed?
A. Trigeminal (V)
B. Facial (VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
D. Hypoglossal (XII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) controls facial muscles; drooping suggests Bell’s palsy or
stroke.
11. What is the purpose of the whispered voice test?
A. Assess hearing acuity
B. Evaluate speech clarity
C. Test balance
D. Check for tinnitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The whispered voice test assesses hearing by checking the ability to hear whispered
words.
, 12. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign (pain on inspiration during RUQ palpation) indicates cholecystitis.
13. Which technique is used to assess for renal tenderness?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percussion over the costovertebral angle assesses for renal tenderness, as in
pyelonephritis.
14. A patient reports night sweats and fatigue. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Tuberculosis
C. Anxiety
D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Night sweats and fatigue are constitutional symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis or
malignancy.
15. What is the normal range for adult oxygen saturation (SpO2) at rest?
A. 80–85%
B. 85–90%
C. 95–100%
D. 90–95%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal SpO2 in healthy adults is 95–100% at rest.
16. True or False: A bruit over the thyroid is a normal finding.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thyroid bruit suggests increased blood flow, as in hyperthyroidism, and is not
normal.
17. Select all that apply: Which are components of a mental status exam?
A. Orientation
B. Memory
C. Motor strength
D. Mood and affect
E. Reflexes
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Mental status includes orientation, memory, and mood/affect; motor strength and
reflexes are neurological.
18. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
assessment midterm exam new latest version with all
questions, answers and rationale
1. What is the primary purpose of collecting a health history during an assessment?
A. Diagnose medical conditions
B. Gather subjective data to guide the exam
C. Order diagnostic tests
D. Prescribe treatment plans
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The health history collects subjective data to identify symptoms, risk factors, and
patient context to guide the physical exam.
2. Which technique is used to assess for tactile fremitus?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tactile fremitus is assessed by palpating chest vibrations while the patient says
“ninety-nine.”
3. A patient reports chest pain that worsens with coughing. What condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Angina
B. Pleurisy
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Esophageal reflux
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pleuritic pain, exacerbated by coughing or breathing, suggests pleural inflammation,
as in pleurisy.
4. What is the standard sequence for a physical examination?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The standard sequence prevents altering findings, except in abdominal exams where
auscultation precedes palpation/percussion.
5. Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing pupil response to light?
A. Optic (II)
B. Oculomotor (III)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Facial (VII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (III) controls pupil constriction, tested with light.
,6. True or False: A positive Romberg test indicates normal balance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg test (swaying with eyes closed) suggests impaired proprioception
or cerebellar dysfunction.
7. Select all that apply: Which components are part of a comprehensive health history?
A. Chief complaint
B. Past surgical history
C. Social history
D. Laboratory results
E. Family history
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Health history includes chief complaint, past surgical history, social history, and
family history; lab results are objective data.
8. A patient has a barrel chest. What condition is associated with this finding?
A. Pneumonia
B. COPD
C. Heart failure
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Barrel chest, due to hyperinflation, is characteristic of COPD.
9. Which sound is expected when percussing healthy lung tissue?
A. Dullness
B. Resonance
C. Hyperresonance
D. Tympany
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Resonance is normal over healthy lungs; hyperresonance suggests air trapping,
dullness consolidation, and tympany hollow organs.
10. A patient reports unilateral facial drooping. Which cranial nerve should be assessed?
A. Trigeminal (V)
B. Facial (VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
D. Hypoglossal (XII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) controls facial muscles; drooping suggests Bell’s palsy or
stroke.
11. What is the purpose of the whispered voice test?
A. Assess hearing acuity
B. Evaluate speech clarity
C. Test balance
D. Check for tinnitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The whispered voice test assesses hearing by checking the ability to hear whispered
words.
, 12. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign (pain on inspiration during RUQ palpation) indicates cholecystitis.
13. Which technique is used to assess for renal tenderness?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percussion over the costovertebral angle assesses for renal tenderness, as in
pyelonephritis.
14. A patient reports night sweats and fatigue. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Tuberculosis
C. Anxiety
D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Night sweats and fatigue are constitutional symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis or
malignancy.
15. What is the normal range for adult oxygen saturation (SpO2) at rest?
A. 80–85%
B. 85–90%
C. 95–100%
D. 90–95%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal SpO2 in healthy adults is 95–100% at rest.
16. True or False: A bruit over the thyroid is a normal finding.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thyroid bruit suggests increased blood flow, as in hyperthyroidism, and is not
normal.
17. Select all that apply: Which are components of a mental status exam?
A. Orientation
B. Memory
C. Motor strength
D. Mood and affect
E. Reflexes
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Mental status includes orientation, memory, and mood/affect; motor strength and
reflexes are neurological.
18. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
