A-IPC Exam Study Guide | 2025/2026 Latest
Edition | Infection Control Practice Test with
Verified Q&A | Graded A+
The A-IPC Exam (Associate – Infection Prevention and Control) is designed for early-career
infection preventionists or healthcare professionals seeking foundational certification in
infection prevention. This 2025/2026 updated edition includes 100 exam-style practice
questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales to help learners master infection prevention
standards, apply evidence-based practices, and achieve exam success.
Key Topics Covered
✔ Core principles of microbiology and epidemiology in healthcare
✔ Modes of transmission and strategies for breaking the chain of infection
✔ Standard, contact, droplet, and airborne precautions
✔ Hand hygiene, PPE, sterilization, disinfection, and aseptic technique
✔ Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): prevention, surveillance, and reporting
✔ Immunizations, antimicrobial stewardship, and outbreak management
✔ Regulatory and accreditation standards (CDC, OSHA, WHO, The Joint Commission)
Answer Format
Questions are presented with the correct choice highlighted in bold green. Each answer is
supported by a clear rationale to reinforce infection control best practices and prepare you for
exam-style critical thinking scenarios.
1. What is the primary purpose of standard precautions in healthcare
settings?
a) To protect only healthcare workers
b) To prevent transmission of infectious agents to all individuals
c) To reduce the need for hand hygiene
d) To apply only during outbreaks
b) To prevent transmission of infectious agents to all individuals
Rationale: Standard precautions are applied universally to prevent the transmission of
infectious agents to patients, healthcare workers, and visitors, per CDC guidelines.
2. Which organism is most commonly associated with catheter-associated
urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Escherichia coli
c) Clostridium difficile
,d) Candida albicans
b) Escherichia coli
Rationale: E. coli is the most common cause of CAUTIs due to its prevalence in the urinary tract
and ability to adhere to catheters.
3. What is the minimum duration for effective hand hygiene with
alcohol-based hand rub?
a) 5 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 60 seconds
b) 15 seconds
Rationale: The CDC recommends rubbing hands with alcohol-based hand rub for at least 15
seconds to ensure effective disinfection.
4. A patient with suspected tuberculosis is placed in which type of isolation?
a) Contact precautions
b) Droplet precautions
c) Airborne precautions
d) Standard precautions only
c) Airborne precautions
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles, requiring airborne precautions,
including an N95 respirator and negative-pressure room.
5. What is a key strategy to prevent central line-associated bloodstream
infections (CLABSIs)?
a) Changing dressings weekly
b) Using maximal sterile barrier precautions during insertion
c) Avoiding hand hygiene
d) Reusing access caps
b) Using maximal sterile barrier precautions during insertion
Rationale: Maximal sterile barrier precautions (cap, mask, gown, gloves, full-body drape)
reduce CLABSI risk, per CDC guidelines.
6. Which pathogen requires contact precautions in a healthcare setting?
a) Influenza virus
b) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Measles virus
b) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Rationale: MRSA is transmitted via direct contact, requiring contact precautions (gloves, gown)
to prevent spread.
7. What is the primary mode of transmission for Clostridium difficile?
a) Airborne
b) Droplet
, c) Fecal-oral
d) Vector-borne
c) Fecal-oral
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated
surfaces or hands, requiring contact precautions.
8. What is a key component of an antimicrobial stewardship program?
a) Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics for all infections
b) Monitoring antibiotic use and resistance patterns
c) Avoiding culture results
d) Ignoring treatment duration
b) Monitoring antibiotic use and resistance patterns
Rationale: Antimicrobial stewardship involves tracking antibiotic use and resistance to promote
appropriate prescribing and reduce resistance.
9. A healthcare worker is exposed to blood via a needlestick. What is the
first action?
a) Ignore the exposure
b) Wash the area with soap and water
c) Apply alcohol-based hand rub
d) Report to the supervisor later
b) Wash the area with soap and water
Rationale: Immediate washing with soap and water reduces the risk of infection, followed by
reporting per OSHA guidelines.
10. What is the recommended PPE for a patient with suspected Ebola virus?
a) Surgical mask only
b) Gloves and gown only
c) Full-body PPE, including PAPR
d) No PPE required
c) Full-body PPE, including PAPR
Rationale: Ebola requires full-body PPE, including a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR),
due to its high-risk transmission via bodily fluids.
11. What is the primary purpose of surveillance in infection prevention?
a) To discipline staff
b) To identify and monitor infection trends
c) To reduce patient admissions
d) To limit PPE use
b) To identify and monitor infection trends
Rationale: Surveillance tracks infection rates and trends to guide prevention strategies, per
CBIC competencies.
12. Which cleaning agent is most effective against Clostridium difficile
spores?
a) Alcohol-based cleaner
Edition | Infection Control Practice Test with
Verified Q&A | Graded A+
The A-IPC Exam (Associate – Infection Prevention and Control) is designed for early-career
infection preventionists or healthcare professionals seeking foundational certification in
infection prevention. This 2025/2026 updated edition includes 100 exam-style practice
questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales to help learners master infection prevention
standards, apply evidence-based practices, and achieve exam success.
Key Topics Covered
✔ Core principles of microbiology and epidemiology in healthcare
✔ Modes of transmission and strategies for breaking the chain of infection
✔ Standard, contact, droplet, and airborne precautions
✔ Hand hygiene, PPE, sterilization, disinfection, and aseptic technique
✔ Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): prevention, surveillance, and reporting
✔ Immunizations, antimicrobial stewardship, and outbreak management
✔ Regulatory and accreditation standards (CDC, OSHA, WHO, The Joint Commission)
Answer Format
Questions are presented with the correct choice highlighted in bold green. Each answer is
supported by a clear rationale to reinforce infection control best practices and prepare you for
exam-style critical thinking scenarios.
1. What is the primary purpose of standard precautions in healthcare
settings?
a) To protect only healthcare workers
b) To prevent transmission of infectious agents to all individuals
c) To reduce the need for hand hygiene
d) To apply only during outbreaks
b) To prevent transmission of infectious agents to all individuals
Rationale: Standard precautions are applied universally to prevent the transmission of
infectious agents to patients, healthcare workers, and visitors, per CDC guidelines.
2. Which organism is most commonly associated with catheter-associated
urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Escherichia coli
c) Clostridium difficile
,d) Candida albicans
b) Escherichia coli
Rationale: E. coli is the most common cause of CAUTIs due to its prevalence in the urinary tract
and ability to adhere to catheters.
3. What is the minimum duration for effective hand hygiene with
alcohol-based hand rub?
a) 5 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 60 seconds
b) 15 seconds
Rationale: The CDC recommends rubbing hands with alcohol-based hand rub for at least 15
seconds to ensure effective disinfection.
4. A patient with suspected tuberculosis is placed in which type of isolation?
a) Contact precautions
b) Droplet precautions
c) Airborne precautions
d) Standard precautions only
c) Airborne precautions
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles, requiring airborne precautions,
including an N95 respirator and negative-pressure room.
5. What is a key strategy to prevent central line-associated bloodstream
infections (CLABSIs)?
a) Changing dressings weekly
b) Using maximal sterile barrier precautions during insertion
c) Avoiding hand hygiene
d) Reusing access caps
b) Using maximal sterile barrier precautions during insertion
Rationale: Maximal sterile barrier precautions (cap, mask, gown, gloves, full-body drape)
reduce CLABSI risk, per CDC guidelines.
6. Which pathogen requires contact precautions in a healthcare setting?
a) Influenza virus
b) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Measles virus
b) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Rationale: MRSA is transmitted via direct contact, requiring contact precautions (gloves, gown)
to prevent spread.
7. What is the primary mode of transmission for Clostridium difficile?
a) Airborne
b) Droplet
, c) Fecal-oral
d) Vector-borne
c) Fecal-oral
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated
surfaces or hands, requiring contact precautions.
8. What is a key component of an antimicrobial stewardship program?
a) Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics for all infections
b) Monitoring antibiotic use and resistance patterns
c) Avoiding culture results
d) Ignoring treatment duration
b) Monitoring antibiotic use and resistance patterns
Rationale: Antimicrobial stewardship involves tracking antibiotic use and resistance to promote
appropriate prescribing and reduce resistance.
9. A healthcare worker is exposed to blood via a needlestick. What is the
first action?
a) Ignore the exposure
b) Wash the area with soap and water
c) Apply alcohol-based hand rub
d) Report to the supervisor later
b) Wash the area with soap and water
Rationale: Immediate washing with soap and water reduces the risk of infection, followed by
reporting per OSHA guidelines.
10. What is the recommended PPE for a patient with suspected Ebola virus?
a) Surgical mask only
b) Gloves and gown only
c) Full-body PPE, including PAPR
d) No PPE required
c) Full-body PPE, including PAPR
Rationale: Ebola requires full-body PPE, including a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR),
due to its high-risk transmission via bodily fluids.
11. What is the primary purpose of surveillance in infection prevention?
a) To discipline staff
b) To identify and monitor infection trends
c) To reduce patient admissions
d) To limit PPE use
b) To identify and monitor infection trends
Rationale: Surveillance tracks infection rates and trends to guide prevention strategies, per
CBIC competencies.
12. Which cleaning agent is most effective against Clostridium difficile
spores?
a) Alcohol-based cleaner
