HESI PHARMACOLOGY
V2 EXAM (3 Full Set Exams)
NCLEX (NGN), & Case-based Scenarios
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This hesi test contains:
passing score Guarantee
Each Exam has 55 Ques and Ans
Format Set of Multiple-choice
questions with incorporating Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) and Case studies questions
Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
,Contents
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM .................................2
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM ...............................38
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM ...............................70
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM
SET 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
1) The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years.
The healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril
to manage the client’s blood pressure. Which instruction should the
nurse provide the client regarding the new medication?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.
,Answer: D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.
Verified Rationale:
• Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) can cause vasodilation and orthostatic
hypotension. Teaching the client to stand up slowly helps prevent dizziness
or falls.
• “Take at bedtime” (A) is sometimes used for nocturnal BP control, but the
priority is orthostatic safety.
• “Report bruising” (B) is more relevant to anticoagulants.
• “Check pulse” (C) is more important with beta-blockers.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
2) A female client calls the clinic and inquires about a possible
reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal
discomfort, itching, and white discharge. The nurse should discuss
which action with the client?
A. Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
B. Continue taking the medication until finished until the symptoms
subside.
C. Consult with a healthcare provider about another treatment for this
effect.
D. Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.
,Answer: C. Consult with a healthcare provider about another treatment for
this effect.
Verified Rationale:
• Amoxicillin can disrupt normal flora, sometimes causing a yeast infection.
The antibiotic course must be completed, but an antifungal may be needed.
• Discontinuing (A) risks incomplete treatment.
• Merely continuing without addressing the infection (B) misses the yeast
infection concern.
• OTC washes (D) do not fully treat fungal infection.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
3) (NGN-Style: Select All That Apply) The nurse is making rounds on a
group of clients when one begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute
asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a short-
acting Beta-2 receptor agonist. Which client responses should the
nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tachycardia.
B. Increased blood pressure.
C. Rapid resolution of wheezing.
D. Improved pulse oximetry values.
E. Reduce fever airway inflammation.
Correct Answers: C and D
,Verified Rationale:
• Short-acting Beta-2 agonists (e.g., albuterol) quickly dilate the bronchi,
reducing wheezing (C) and improving oxygen saturation (D).
• Tachycardia (A) may occur, but it is an adverse effect—not the “desired”
improvement.
• Beta-2 agonists do not primarily lower fever or directly treat inflammation
(E).
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
4) A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg,
sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a PR interval of
0.24. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic
changes.
B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
C. Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.
D. Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Answer: B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the
client.
Verified Rationale:
• Atenolol (β1-blocker) often causes mild bradycardia and slight PR
prolongation. A HR of 58 is not critically low, and the BP is acceptable.
• No clinical signs of instability that would warrant holding or atropine.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
5) The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an ARB,
for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse notes the
serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose.
B. Check the client’s apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Repeat the serum potassium level.
Answer: A. Withhold the scheduled dose.
Verified Rationale:
• Losartan can worsen hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone. A potassium
of 5.9 is significantly high. Holding the dose prevents further elevation.
• Next steps include informing the provider, but the immediate priority is not
to give the drug.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
6) (NGN-Style, Reordering) A client with acute status asthmaticus is
prescribed a series of medications:
• Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
• Albuterol (Proventil) puffs
,• Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM
• Prednisone (Deltasone) orally
Question: In which order should the nurse administer these
medications?
1) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs
2) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
3) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally
4) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM
Verified Rationale:
• Albuterol (short-acting) first for rapid bronchodilation.
• Salmeterol (long-acting) next to maintain bronchodilation.
• Prednisone (steroid) reduces inflammation.
• Gentamicin (antibiotic) last for any suspected infection, not critical for
immediate bronchodilation.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
7) A client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the
nurse provide?
A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B. Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C. Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
, D. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
Answer: A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Verified Rationale:
• Scopolamine patches need about 4 hours for transdermal absorption to
start preventing motion sickness.
• Typically changed every 72 hours, not every other day.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
8) A client with giardiasis is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) 2
grams PO. Which information should the nurse include?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in urine color.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food.
Answer: D. Take the medication with food.
Verified Rationale:
• Metronidazole can upset the GI tract; taking with food minimizes nausea.
• Urine may darken but it’s not typically serious.
• Photosensitivity is more common with tetracyclines, not metronidazole.
• Complete the full course to eradicate parasites.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
9) A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen 600 mg PO
four times a day. To prevent GI bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100
mcg PO is prescribed. Which teaching is most important?
A. Use contraception during intercourse.
B. Ensure it is taken on an empty stomach.
C. Promote oral fluids to prevent constipation.
D. Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to ibuprofen.
Answer: A. Use contraception during intercourse.
Verified Rationale:
• Misoprostol is Category X due to its uterotonic effects. Must avoid
pregnancy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
10) A client with osteoarthritis gets a new prescription for celecoxib
(Celebrex). The client has a sulfa allergy. Which action is most
important before administering?
A. Review the hemoglobin results.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D. Take vital signs.
, Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider.
Verified Rationale:
• Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor with structural similarity to sulfonamides.
Must verify with prescriber in case of cross-allergy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
11) A client with new onset SVT is prescribed digoxin. For which lab
result should the nurse contact the HCP immediately?
A. K+ = 3.1 mEq/L
B. Na+ = 132 mEq/L
C. Calcium = 8.6 mg/dL
D. Magnesium = 1.2 mEq/L
Answer: A. K+ = 3.1 mEq/L
Verified Rationale:
• Hypokalemia predisposes to digoxin toxicity. A level of 3.1 is dangerously
low.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
V2 EXAM (3 Full Set Exams)
NCLEX (NGN), & Case-based Scenarios
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This hesi test contains:
passing score Guarantee
Each Exam has 55 Ques and Ans
Format Set of Multiple-choice
questions with incorporating Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) and Case studies questions
Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
,Contents
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM .................................2
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM ...............................38
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM ...............................70
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM
SET 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
1) The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years.
The healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril
to manage the client’s blood pressure. Which instruction should the
nurse provide the client regarding the new medication?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.
,Answer: D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.
Verified Rationale:
• Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) can cause vasodilation and orthostatic
hypotension. Teaching the client to stand up slowly helps prevent dizziness
or falls.
• “Take at bedtime” (A) is sometimes used for nocturnal BP control, but the
priority is orthostatic safety.
• “Report bruising” (B) is more relevant to anticoagulants.
• “Check pulse” (C) is more important with beta-blockers.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
2) A female client calls the clinic and inquires about a possible
reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal
discomfort, itching, and white discharge. The nurse should discuss
which action with the client?
A. Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
B. Continue taking the medication until finished until the symptoms
subside.
C. Consult with a healthcare provider about another treatment for this
effect.
D. Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.
,Answer: C. Consult with a healthcare provider about another treatment for
this effect.
Verified Rationale:
• Amoxicillin can disrupt normal flora, sometimes causing a yeast infection.
The antibiotic course must be completed, but an antifungal may be needed.
• Discontinuing (A) risks incomplete treatment.
• Merely continuing without addressing the infection (B) misses the yeast
infection concern.
• OTC washes (D) do not fully treat fungal infection.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
3) (NGN-Style: Select All That Apply) The nurse is making rounds on a
group of clients when one begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute
asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a short-
acting Beta-2 receptor agonist. Which client responses should the
nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tachycardia.
B. Increased blood pressure.
C. Rapid resolution of wheezing.
D. Improved pulse oximetry values.
E. Reduce fever airway inflammation.
Correct Answers: C and D
,Verified Rationale:
• Short-acting Beta-2 agonists (e.g., albuterol) quickly dilate the bronchi,
reducing wheezing (C) and improving oxygen saturation (D).
• Tachycardia (A) may occur, but it is an adverse effect—not the “desired”
improvement.
• Beta-2 agonists do not primarily lower fever or directly treat inflammation
(E).
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
4) A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg,
sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a PR interval of
0.24. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic
changes.
B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
C. Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.
D. Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Answer: B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the
client.
Verified Rationale:
• Atenolol (β1-blocker) often causes mild bradycardia and slight PR
prolongation. A HR of 58 is not critically low, and the BP is acceptable.
• No clinical signs of instability that would warrant holding or atropine.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
5) The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an ARB,
for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse notes the
serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose.
B. Check the client’s apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Repeat the serum potassium level.
Answer: A. Withhold the scheduled dose.
Verified Rationale:
• Losartan can worsen hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone. A potassium
of 5.9 is significantly high. Holding the dose prevents further elevation.
• Next steps include informing the provider, but the immediate priority is not
to give the drug.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
6) (NGN-Style, Reordering) A client with acute status asthmaticus is
prescribed a series of medications:
• Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
• Albuterol (Proventil) puffs
,• Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM
• Prednisone (Deltasone) orally
Question: In which order should the nurse administer these
medications?
1) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs
2) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
3) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally
4) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM
Verified Rationale:
• Albuterol (short-acting) first for rapid bronchodilation.
• Salmeterol (long-acting) next to maintain bronchodilation.
• Prednisone (steroid) reduces inflammation.
• Gentamicin (antibiotic) last for any suspected infection, not critical for
immediate bronchodilation.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
7) A client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the
nurse provide?
A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B. Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C. Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
, D. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
Answer: A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Verified Rationale:
• Scopolamine patches need about 4 hours for transdermal absorption to
start preventing motion sickness.
• Typically changed every 72 hours, not every other day.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
8) A client with giardiasis is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) 2
grams PO. Which information should the nurse include?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in urine color.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food.
Answer: D. Take the medication with food.
Verified Rationale:
• Metronidazole can upset the GI tract; taking with food minimizes nausea.
• Urine may darken but it’s not typically serious.
• Photosensitivity is more common with tetracyclines, not metronidazole.
• Complete the full course to eradicate parasites.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
9) A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen 600 mg PO
four times a day. To prevent GI bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100
mcg PO is prescribed. Which teaching is most important?
A. Use contraception during intercourse.
B. Ensure it is taken on an empty stomach.
C. Promote oral fluids to prevent constipation.
D. Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to ibuprofen.
Answer: A. Use contraception during intercourse.
Verified Rationale:
• Misoprostol is Category X due to its uterotonic effects. Must avoid
pregnancy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
10) A client with osteoarthritis gets a new prescription for celecoxib
(Celebrex). The client has a sulfa allergy. Which action is most
important before administering?
A. Review the hemoglobin results.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D. Take vital signs.
, Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider.
Verified Rationale:
• Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor with structural similarity to sulfonamides.
Must verify with prescriber in case of cross-allergy.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
11) A client with new onset SVT is prescribed digoxin. For which lab
result should the nurse contact the HCP immediately?
A. K+ = 3.1 mEq/L
B. Na+ = 132 mEq/L
C. Calcium = 8.6 mg/dL
D. Magnesium = 1.2 mEq/L
Answer: A. K+ = 3.1 mEq/L
Verified Rationale:
• Hypokalemia predisposes to digoxin toxicity. A level of 3.1 is dangerously
low.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────
