NCC Maternal Newborn Nursing (RNC-
MNN) Certification 2025/2026 – Verified
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
and Explanations
Prenatal Care (20 Questions)
1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
a. Administer an antiemetic medication immediately
b. Encourage small, frequent meals with bland foods
c. Recommend fasting for 24 hours to rest the stomach
d. Advise bed rest until symptoms resolve
Correct Answer: b. Encourage small, frequent meals with bland foods
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting (morning sickness) are common in early pregnancy due
to hormonal changes, particularly elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Small,
frequent, bland meals help stabilize gastric acid levels and maintain consistent blood
sugar, reducing nausea. Antiemetics may be considered for severe cases (hyperemesis
gravidarum), but non-pharmacologic interventions are first-line. Fasting or bed rest may
exacerbate symptoms or lead to dehydration.
2. A pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Administer antihypertensive medication
b. Educate the patient on low-sodium diet
c. Notify the healthcare provider
d. Schedule a follow-up in one week
Correct Answer: c. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg at 16 weeks suggests possible chronic
hypertension or early gestational hypertension, both of which require prompt evaluation.
Notifying the provider ensures timely assessment and management to prevent
complications like preeclampsia. Administering medication or dietary changes without
provider orders is outside the nurse’s scope, and delaying follow-up could worsen
outcomes.
3. Which laboratory test is most critical for a pregnant woman with suspected
gestational diabetes at 24 weeks?
a. Fasting blood glucose
b. Hemoglobin A1c
c. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
d. Random blood glucose
, Correct Answer: c. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
Rationale: The OGTT is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes, typically
performed between 24–28 weeks. It assesses glucose metabolism under controlled
conditions, providing a definitive diagnosis. Fasting or random glucose tests are less
specific, and HbA1c is not routinely used for screening in pregnancy.
4. A 32-year-old G2P1 at 20 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What
is the nurse’s first action?
a. Perform a nonstress test (NST)
b. Instruct the patient to drink juice and count movements
c. Schedule an ultrasound immediately
d. Reassure the patient that this is normal
Correct Answer: b. Instruct the patient to drink juice and count movements
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress but can also result from
normal variations or maternal factors (e.g., dehydration). Having the patient drink a
sugary beverage and count fetal movements over 1–2 hours is a non-invasive first step to
assess fetal well-being. An NST or ultrasound may follow if concerns persist, but
reassurance without assessment is inappropriate.
5. What is the recommended weight gain for a pregnant woman with a pre-pregnancy
BMI of 22?
a. 11–20 pounds
b. 15–25 pounds
c. 25–35 pounds
d. 28–40 pounds
Correct Answer: c. 25–35 pounds
Rationale: For a normal BMI (18.5–24.9), the Institute of Medicine recommends a
weight gain of 25–35 pounds during pregnancy to support fetal growth and maternal
health. Other ranges apply to underweight, overweight, or obese women.
6. A pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation asks about safe exercise. What is the
nurse’s best response?
a. Avoid all exercise to prevent preterm labor
b. Engage in moderate aerobic exercise for 150 minutes per week
c. Limit exercise to stretching and yoga only
d. Exercise only in the first trimester
Correct Answer: b. Engage in moderate aerobic exercise for 150 minutes per week
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)
recommends 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise weekly for healthy pregnant
women, unless contraindicated (e.g., placenta previa). Exercise supports cardiovascular
health and reduces gestational complications. Limiting or avoiding exercise is
unnecessary unless specific risks are present.
7. Which finding during a prenatal visit at 28 weeks requires immediate follow-up?
a. Fundal height of 27 cm
b. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
, c. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week
d. Mild pedal edema
Correct Answer: b. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Rationale: A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg may indicate gestational hypertension or
preeclampsia, especially at 28 weeks, requiring urgent evaluation. Fundal height within
2–3 cm of gestational age, mild edema, and moderate weight gain are typically normal
unless accompanied by other symptoms.
8. A 25-year-old pregnant woman tests positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) at 36
weeks. What is the nurse’s role?
a. Administer antibiotics immediately
b. Educate the patient on intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Schedule a cesarean delivery
d. Reassure the patient that no treatment is needed
Correct Answer: b. Educate the patient on intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis
Rationale: GBS-positive mothers require intrapartum antibiotics (e.g., penicillin) to
prevent neonatal GBS infection. The nurse’s role is to educate the patient about this plan,
not to administer antibiotics prenatally or assume a cesarean is needed. Reassurance
without a plan is incorrect.
9. What is the most appropriate screening for a 35-year-old pregnant woman at 10
weeks gestation?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
c. Glucose challenge test
d. Group B streptococcus culture
Correct Answer: b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
Rationale: For women ≥35 years, NIPT is recommended at 10–13 weeks to screen for
fetal aneuploidies (e.g., Down syndrome) due to increased maternal age-related risks.
Amniocentesis is diagnostic, not screening, and is performed later. Glucose screening
occurs at 24–28 weeks, and GBS screening at 36–37 weeks.
10. A pregnant woman with a history of smoking asks about risks to the fetus. Which is
the most significant risk?
a. Macrosomia
b. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
c. Gestational diabetes
d. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: b. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Rationale: Smoking reduces placental blood flow, leading to IUGR, a major fetal risk.
Macrosomia is associated with diabetes, not smoking. While smoking may contribute to
preterm labor, IUGR is the most direct and significant risk.
11. A 30-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks gestation reports leg swelling. Which finding
indicates a need for further evaluation?
a. Bilateral pitting edema in the ankles
MNN) Certification 2025/2026 – Verified
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
and Explanations
Prenatal Care (20 Questions)
1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
a. Administer an antiemetic medication immediately
b. Encourage small, frequent meals with bland foods
c. Recommend fasting for 24 hours to rest the stomach
d. Advise bed rest until symptoms resolve
Correct Answer: b. Encourage small, frequent meals with bland foods
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting (morning sickness) are common in early pregnancy due
to hormonal changes, particularly elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Small,
frequent, bland meals help stabilize gastric acid levels and maintain consistent blood
sugar, reducing nausea. Antiemetics may be considered for severe cases (hyperemesis
gravidarum), but non-pharmacologic interventions are first-line. Fasting or bed rest may
exacerbate symptoms or lead to dehydration.
2. A pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Administer antihypertensive medication
b. Educate the patient on low-sodium diet
c. Notify the healthcare provider
d. Schedule a follow-up in one week
Correct Answer: c. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg at 16 weeks suggests possible chronic
hypertension or early gestational hypertension, both of which require prompt evaluation.
Notifying the provider ensures timely assessment and management to prevent
complications like preeclampsia. Administering medication or dietary changes without
provider orders is outside the nurse’s scope, and delaying follow-up could worsen
outcomes.
3. Which laboratory test is most critical for a pregnant woman with suspected
gestational diabetes at 24 weeks?
a. Fasting blood glucose
b. Hemoglobin A1c
c. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
d. Random blood glucose
, Correct Answer: c. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
Rationale: The OGTT is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes, typically
performed between 24–28 weeks. It assesses glucose metabolism under controlled
conditions, providing a definitive diagnosis. Fasting or random glucose tests are less
specific, and HbA1c is not routinely used for screening in pregnancy.
4. A 32-year-old G2P1 at 20 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What
is the nurse’s first action?
a. Perform a nonstress test (NST)
b. Instruct the patient to drink juice and count movements
c. Schedule an ultrasound immediately
d. Reassure the patient that this is normal
Correct Answer: b. Instruct the patient to drink juice and count movements
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress but can also result from
normal variations or maternal factors (e.g., dehydration). Having the patient drink a
sugary beverage and count fetal movements over 1–2 hours is a non-invasive first step to
assess fetal well-being. An NST or ultrasound may follow if concerns persist, but
reassurance without assessment is inappropriate.
5. What is the recommended weight gain for a pregnant woman with a pre-pregnancy
BMI of 22?
a. 11–20 pounds
b. 15–25 pounds
c. 25–35 pounds
d. 28–40 pounds
Correct Answer: c. 25–35 pounds
Rationale: For a normal BMI (18.5–24.9), the Institute of Medicine recommends a
weight gain of 25–35 pounds during pregnancy to support fetal growth and maternal
health. Other ranges apply to underweight, overweight, or obese women.
6. A pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation asks about safe exercise. What is the
nurse’s best response?
a. Avoid all exercise to prevent preterm labor
b. Engage in moderate aerobic exercise for 150 minutes per week
c. Limit exercise to stretching and yoga only
d. Exercise only in the first trimester
Correct Answer: b. Engage in moderate aerobic exercise for 150 minutes per week
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)
recommends 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise weekly for healthy pregnant
women, unless contraindicated (e.g., placenta previa). Exercise supports cardiovascular
health and reduces gestational complications. Limiting or avoiding exercise is
unnecessary unless specific risks are present.
7. Which finding during a prenatal visit at 28 weeks requires immediate follow-up?
a. Fundal height of 27 cm
b. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
, c. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week
d. Mild pedal edema
Correct Answer: b. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Rationale: A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg may indicate gestational hypertension or
preeclampsia, especially at 28 weeks, requiring urgent evaluation. Fundal height within
2–3 cm of gestational age, mild edema, and moderate weight gain are typically normal
unless accompanied by other symptoms.
8. A 25-year-old pregnant woman tests positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) at 36
weeks. What is the nurse’s role?
a. Administer antibiotics immediately
b. Educate the patient on intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Schedule a cesarean delivery
d. Reassure the patient that no treatment is needed
Correct Answer: b. Educate the patient on intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis
Rationale: GBS-positive mothers require intrapartum antibiotics (e.g., penicillin) to
prevent neonatal GBS infection. The nurse’s role is to educate the patient about this plan,
not to administer antibiotics prenatally or assume a cesarean is needed. Reassurance
without a plan is incorrect.
9. What is the most appropriate screening for a 35-year-old pregnant woman at 10
weeks gestation?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
c. Glucose challenge test
d. Group B streptococcus culture
Correct Answer: b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
Rationale: For women ≥35 years, NIPT is recommended at 10–13 weeks to screen for
fetal aneuploidies (e.g., Down syndrome) due to increased maternal age-related risks.
Amniocentesis is diagnostic, not screening, and is performed later. Glucose screening
occurs at 24–28 weeks, and GBS screening at 36–37 weeks.
10. A pregnant woman with a history of smoking asks about risks to the fetus. Which is
the most significant risk?
a. Macrosomia
b. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
c. Gestational diabetes
d. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: b. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Rationale: Smoking reduces placental blood flow, leading to IUGR, a major fetal risk.
Macrosomia is associated with diabetes, not smoking. While smoking may contribute to
preterm labor, IUGR is the most direct and significant risk.
11. A 30-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks gestation reports leg swelling. Which finding
indicates a need for further evaluation?
a. Bilateral pitting edema in the ankles
