ANP 650 Midterm Exam 2025 Ac-
tual Test Bank with 100 Verified Ques-
tions, Detailed Rationales, and Cor-
rect Answers, A+ Grade Guaranteed
Question 1: A client is diagnosed with strabismus. Which of the following will the client
most likely experience with this disorder?
1. Nystagmus
2. Diplopia
3. Aphakic vision
4. Ptosis
Correct Answer: 2. Diplopia
Rationale: Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are misaligned, lead-
ing to double vision (diplopia) because the brain receives two different
images. Nystagmus involves involuntary eye movements, aphakic vision
occurs post-lens removal, and ptosis is a drooping eyelid, none of which are
primary symptoms of strabismus.
Question 2: A client presents with gradual, painless blurring of vision in both eyes.
What is the most likely cause?
1. Glaucoma
2. Cataracts
3. Macular degeneration
4. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: 2. Cataracts
Rationale: Cataracts cause progressive clouding of the lens, leading to
painless, gradual vision blurring, often affecting both eyes asymmetrically.
Glaucoma typically presents with acute pressure-related symptoms, macu-
lar degeneration affects central vision, and retinal detachment causes sud-
den visual disturbances like flashes or a curtain effect.
Question 3: What is the primary goal of medication in managing glaucoma?
1. Dry up excess secretions
2. Lower intraocular pressure
3. Strengthen eye muscles
4. Improve vision
Correct Answer: 2. Lower intraocular pressure
Rationale: Glaucoma results from increased intraocular pressure damag-
ing the optic nerve. Medications, such as beta-blocker drops or prostaglandin
analogs, aim to reduce this pressure to prevent further vision loss. They
do not address secretions, muscle strength, or restore lost vision.
Question 4: What is the most important post-operative instruction for a client after
cataract surgery?
1. Follow eyedrop schedule
2. Sleep on the right side for drainage
1
, 3. Rub the eye if needed
4. No instructions needed for outpatient procedure
Correct Answer: 1. Follow eyedrop schedule
Rationale: Post-cataract surgery, patients must use prescribed eyedrops
(e.g., antibiotics, steroids) to prevent infection and reduce inflammation.
Rubbing the eye or improper positioning can disrupt healing, and all pa-
tients require clear instructions to ensure recovery.
Question 5: Tonometry reveals an intraocular pressure of 25 mmHg. What does this
indicate?
1. Low reading, no issue
2. Normal, no action
3. High, needs follow-up
4. High, no treatment possible
Correct Answer: 3. High, needs follow-up
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg. A
reading of 25 mmHg suggests possible glaucoma, requiring further eval-
uation (e.g., visual field testing) and potential treatment with pressure-
lowering medications.
Question 6: What is the definitive treatment for cataracts?
1. Eyedrops
2. Lens removal surgery
3. Cryopexy
4. Phototherapy
Correct Answer: 2. Lens removal surgery
Rationale: Cataract surgery (phacoemulsification) removes the clouded
lens and replaces it with an artificial intraocular lens, restoring vision.
Eyedrops may slow progression but are not curative, and cryopexy or pho-
totherapy are used for other conditions like retinal tears.
Question 7: In assessing a client with open-angle glaucoma, what should the nurse
prioritize?
1. Degree of vision loss
2. Headache severity
3. Blurred vision amount
4. Onset date
Correct Answer: 1. Degree of vision loss
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma causes gradual peripheral vision loss
due to chronic pressure buildup. Assessing vision loss guides treatment
efficacy. Headache and sudden blur are more typical of acute closed-angle
glaucoma.
Question 8: A client reports seeing flashes and floaters. What condition is suspected?
1. Cataracts
2. Glaucoma
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: 4. Retinal detachment
Rationale: Flashes and floaters indicate the retina pulling away from the
2
, underlying tissue, a medical emergency requiring urgent surgical interven-
tion. Other conditions listed do not typically present with these symptoms.
Question 9: Who establishes the scope of practice for nurses?
1. Hospital policy
2. State Board of Nursing
3. Federal law
4. Doctor orders
Correct Answer: 2. State Board of Nursing
Rationale: The State Board of Nursing defines the legal scope of practice
based on licensure, education, and certification, ensuring nurses operate
within state-specific regulations.
Question 10: What is included in the scope of practice for an Adult-Gerontology Acute
Care Nurse Practitioner (ACNP)?
1. Only pediatric care
2. Services in acute settings
3. Routine checkups only
4. Surgical procedures
Correct Answer: 2. Services in acute settings
Rationale: ACNPs manage complex, acutely ill adult and geriatric pa-
tients in settings like hospitals or ICUs, focusing on critical care, not pe-
diatrics, routine checkups, or surgery.
Question 11: What did the 2008 Consensus Model establish?
1. Nursing education standards
2. APRN regulation model
3. Hospital staffing rules
4. Drug prescribing laws
Correct Answer: 2. APRN regulation model
Rationale: The 2008 Consensus Model standardized Advanced Practice
Registered Nurse (APRN) licensure, accreditation, certification, and edu-
cation across states to ensure consistency and quality.
Question 12: What does the testing threshold refer to in clinical decision-making?
1. When to stop testing
2. Probability high enough for more tests
3. Cost limit for diagnostics
4. Patient refusal point
Correct Answer: 2. Probability high enough for more tests
Rationale: The testing threshold is the pretest probability of disease that
justifies ordering diagnostic tests to confirm or rule out a condition, bal-
ancing risks and benefits.
Question 13: What is the treatment threshold in clinical practice?
1. Start therapy without tests
2. Probability high for intervention
3. End of treatment
4. Follow-up only
Correct Answer: 2. Probability high for intervention
3
tual Test Bank with 100 Verified Ques-
tions, Detailed Rationales, and Cor-
rect Answers, A+ Grade Guaranteed
Question 1: A client is diagnosed with strabismus. Which of the following will the client
most likely experience with this disorder?
1. Nystagmus
2. Diplopia
3. Aphakic vision
4. Ptosis
Correct Answer: 2. Diplopia
Rationale: Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are misaligned, lead-
ing to double vision (diplopia) because the brain receives two different
images. Nystagmus involves involuntary eye movements, aphakic vision
occurs post-lens removal, and ptosis is a drooping eyelid, none of which are
primary symptoms of strabismus.
Question 2: A client presents with gradual, painless blurring of vision in both eyes.
What is the most likely cause?
1. Glaucoma
2. Cataracts
3. Macular degeneration
4. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: 2. Cataracts
Rationale: Cataracts cause progressive clouding of the lens, leading to
painless, gradual vision blurring, often affecting both eyes asymmetrically.
Glaucoma typically presents with acute pressure-related symptoms, macu-
lar degeneration affects central vision, and retinal detachment causes sud-
den visual disturbances like flashes or a curtain effect.
Question 3: What is the primary goal of medication in managing glaucoma?
1. Dry up excess secretions
2. Lower intraocular pressure
3. Strengthen eye muscles
4. Improve vision
Correct Answer: 2. Lower intraocular pressure
Rationale: Glaucoma results from increased intraocular pressure damag-
ing the optic nerve. Medications, such as beta-blocker drops or prostaglandin
analogs, aim to reduce this pressure to prevent further vision loss. They
do not address secretions, muscle strength, or restore lost vision.
Question 4: What is the most important post-operative instruction for a client after
cataract surgery?
1. Follow eyedrop schedule
2. Sleep on the right side for drainage
1
, 3. Rub the eye if needed
4. No instructions needed for outpatient procedure
Correct Answer: 1. Follow eyedrop schedule
Rationale: Post-cataract surgery, patients must use prescribed eyedrops
(e.g., antibiotics, steroids) to prevent infection and reduce inflammation.
Rubbing the eye or improper positioning can disrupt healing, and all pa-
tients require clear instructions to ensure recovery.
Question 5: Tonometry reveals an intraocular pressure of 25 mmHg. What does this
indicate?
1. Low reading, no issue
2. Normal, no action
3. High, needs follow-up
4. High, no treatment possible
Correct Answer: 3. High, needs follow-up
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg. A
reading of 25 mmHg suggests possible glaucoma, requiring further eval-
uation (e.g., visual field testing) and potential treatment with pressure-
lowering medications.
Question 6: What is the definitive treatment for cataracts?
1. Eyedrops
2. Lens removal surgery
3. Cryopexy
4. Phototherapy
Correct Answer: 2. Lens removal surgery
Rationale: Cataract surgery (phacoemulsification) removes the clouded
lens and replaces it with an artificial intraocular lens, restoring vision.
Eyedrops may slow progression but are not curative, and cryopexy or pho-
totherapy are used for other conditions like retinal tears.
Question 7: In assessing a client with open-angle glaucoma, what should the nurse
prioritize?
1. Degree of vision loss
2. Headache severity
3. Blurred vision amount
4. Onset date
Correct Answer: 1. Degree of vision loss
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma causes gradual peripheral vision loss
due to chronic pressure buildup. Assessing vision loss guides treatment
efficacy. Headache and sudden blur are more typical of acute closed-angle
glaucoma.
Question 8: A client reports seeing flashes and floaters. What condition is suspected?
1. Cataracts
2. Glaucoma
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: 4. Retinal detachment
Rationale: Flashes and floaters indicate the retina pulling away from the
2
, underlying tissue, a medical emergency requiring urgent surgical interven-
tion. Other conditions listed do not typically present with these symptoms.
Question 9: Who establishes the scope of practice for nurses?
1. Hospital policy
2. State Board of Nursing
3. Federal law
4. Doctor orders
Correct Answer: 2. State Board of Nursing
Rationale: The State Board of Nursing defines the legal scope of practice
based on licensure, education, and certification, ensuring nurses operate
within state-specific regulations.
Question 10: What is included in the scope of practice for an Adult-Gerontology Acute
Care Nurse Practitioner (ACNP)?
1. Only pediatric care
2. Services in acute settings
3. Routine checkups only
4. Surgical procedures
Correct Answer: 2. Services in acute settings
Rationale: ACNPs manage complex, acutely ill adult and geriatric pa-
tients in settings like hospitals or ICUs, focusing on critical care, not pe-
diatrics, routine checkups, or surgery.
Question 11: What did the 2008 Consensus Model establish?
1. Nursing education standards
2. APRN regulation model
3. Hospital staffing rules
4. Drug prescribing laws
Correct Answer: 2. APRN regulation model
Rationale: The 2008 Consensus Model standardized Advanced Practice
Registered Nurse (APRN) licensure, accreditation, certification, and edu-
cation across states to ensure consistency and quality.
Question 12: What does the testing threshold refer to in clinical decision-making?
1. When to stop testing
2. Probability high enough for more tests
3. Cost limit for diagnostics
4. Patient refusal point
Correct Answer: 2. Probability high enough for more tests
Rationale: The testing threshold is the pretest probability of disease that
justifies ordering diagnostic tests to confirm or rule out a condition, bal-
ancing risks and benefits.
Question 13: What is the treatment threshold in clinical practice?
1. Start therapy without tests
2. Probability high for intervention
3. End of treatment
4. Follow-up only
Correct Answer: 2. Probability high for intervention
3
