CVRN Review Course Practice
Questions with correct answers
2025/2026
Which of the following valves are open during ventricular systole?
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook correct answers B) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook correct answers B) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse pressure should be 40
mmHg.
A) True
B) False correct answers A) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
A) True
B) False correct answers A) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear correct
answers B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm correct answers A) 20-40 bpm
,The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT interval is the
development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
D) Bradycardia correct answers B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals correct answers B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a
wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval correct answers A) progressive prolongation of the PR
interval, before dropped beats
About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 60 min.
C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 20 min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min. correct answers A) therapy should be door-to-balloon
inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or
injury is present in the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) correct answers A) left anterior descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or
injury is present in the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) correct answers B) circumflex (Cx)
,When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards tell us that there
is upwards of a 40% association of a right ventricular infarction necessitating that we
record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
B) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
C) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the posterior chest wall (V7-V9)
D) a complete 18-lead ECG involving (V4R-V6R and V7-V9) correct answers B) a 15-
lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
What is the most important predictor of a positive patient outcome following a
myocardial infarction?
A) the height of ST elevation
B) CK-MB levels
C) troponin I levels
D) successful reperfusion correct answers D) successful reperfusion
Regarding troponin I, which of the following statements is not true?
A) troponin I will be detectable within 4 hours after onset of acute MI
B) troponin I will reach peak levels within 24 hours after onset of acute MI
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
D) troponin I may remain elevated for 5-10 days after onset of acute MI correct answers
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
End organ damage from hypertensive emergencies includes:
A) pulmonary edema with respiratory failure
B) severe pre-eclampsia in the pregnant patient
C) unstable angina or acute MI
D) mitral stenosis
E) b, c, and d only
F) a, b, and c only correct answers F) a, b, and c only
What effect does high blood pressure have on the Renin-Angiotensin system?
A) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
B) high pressures increase renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasoconstriction and a increase in blood pressure
C) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasodilation and a increase in blood pressure correct answers A) high
pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting
in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
In the management of stage 2 hypertension you may expect to see the patient
prescribed:
A) thiazide type diuretics
B) ACEI or ARB
C) beta blockers or calcium channel blockers
, D) any of the above in combination therapy correct answers D) any of the above in
combination therapy
Which of the following agents is less effective as mono therapy in the management of
African American patients with hypertension:
A) ACE-I
B) calcium channel blockers
C) alpha blockers
D) beta blockers
E) diuretics correct answers D) beta blockers
Which of the following statements regarding the pharmacologic management of renal
patients with hypertension is not true?
A) only requires mono therapy or a single drug to control
B) requires 3 or more drugs to control
C) ACEI and ARBs are effective in decreasing diabetic and non-diabetic renal disease
D) often given loop diuretics correct answers A) only requires mono therapy or a single
drug to control
Which of the following agents is more likely to cause side effects when used in the
management of elderly patients with hypertension?
A) beta blockers
B) diuretics
C) calcium channel blockers
D) ACE inhibitors correct answers A) beta blockers
Identify the new AHA/ACC guidelines for a normal blood pressure range?
A) <120 systolic, <80 diastolic
B) 120-139 systolic, 80-89 diastolic
C) 140-159 systolic, 90-99 diastolic
D) >160 diastolic, >100 diastolic
E) >180 diastolic, >110 diastolic correct answers A) <120 systolic, <80 diastolic
Which of the following statements is true regarding the pharmacologic management of
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A) beta blockers are strictly prohibited as they may decrease left ventricular filling
pressures
B) calcium channel blockers can be used only when there is no obstruction present
C) Antihistamines are prohibited in these patients
D) Diuretics may be considered for patients with fluid overload, but use with caution if
there is evidence of obstruction
E) a and d
F) b and d correct answers F) b and d
Which of the following statements are true regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A) primarily a right ventricular disease
Questions with correct answers
2025/2026
Which of the following valves are open during ventricular systole?
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook correct answers B) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook correct answers B) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse pressure should be 40
mmHg.
A) True
B) False correct answers A) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
A) True
B) False correct answers A) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear correct
answers B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm correct answers A) 20-40 bpm
,The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT interval is the
development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
D) Bradycardia correct answers B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals correct answers B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a
wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval correct answers A) progressive prolongation of the PR
interval, before dropped beats
About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 60 min.
C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 20 min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min. correct answers A) therapy should be door-to-balloon
inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or
injury is present in the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) correct answers A) left anterior descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or
injury is present in the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) correct answers B) circumflex (Cx)
,When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards tell us that there
is upwards of a 40% association of a right ventricular infarction necessitating that we
record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
B) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
C) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the posterior chest wall (V7-V9)
D) a complete 18-lead ECG involving (V4R-V6R and V7-V9) correct answers B) a 15-
lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
What is the most important predictor of a positive patient outcome following a
myocardial infarction?
A) the height of ST elevation
B) CK-MB levels
C) troponin I levels
D) successful reperfusion correct answers D) successful reperfusion
Regarding troponin I, which of the following statements is not true?
A) troponin I will be detectable within 4 hours after onset of acute MI
B) troponin I will reach peak levels within 24 hours after onset of acute MI
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
D) troponin I may remain elevated for 5-10 days after onset of acute MI correct answers
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
End organ damage from hypertensive emergencies includes:
A) pulmonary edema with respiratory failure
B) severe pre-eclampsia in the pregnant patient
C) unstable angina or acute MI
D) mitral stenosis
E) b, c, and d only
F) a, b, and c only correct answers F) a, b, and c only
What effect does high blood pressure have on the Renin-Angiotensin system?
A) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
B) high pressures increase renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasoconstriction and a increase in blood pressure
C) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys
resulting in vasodilation and a increase in blood pressure correct answers A) high
pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting
in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
In the management of stage 2 hypertension you may expect to see the patient
prescribed:
A) thiazide type diuretics
B) ACEI or ARB
C) beta blockers or calcium channel blockers
, D) any of the above in combination therapy correct answers D) any of the above in
combination therapy
Which of the following agents is less effective as mono therapy in the management of
African American patients with hypertension:
A) ACE-I
B) calcium channel blockers
C) alpha blockers
D) beta blockers
E) diuretics correct answers D) beta blockers
Which of the following statements regarding the pharmacologic management of renal
patients with hypertension is not true?
A) only requires mono therapy or a single drug to control
B) requires 3 or more drugs to control
C) ACEI and ARBs are effective in decreasing diabetic and non-diabetic renal disease
D) often given loop diuretics correct answers A) only requires mono therapy or a single
drug to control
Which of the following agents is more likely to cause side effects when used in the
management of elderly patients with hypertension?
A) beta blockers
B) diuretics
C) calcium channel blockers
D) ACE inhibitors correct answers A) beta blockers
Identify the new AHA/ACC guidelines for a normal blood pressure range?
A) <120 systolic, <80 diastolic
B) 120-139 systolic, 80-89 diastolic
C) 140-159 systolic, 90-99 diastolic
D) >160 diastolic, >100 diastolic
E) >180 diastolic, >110 diastolic correct answers A) <120 systolic, <80 diastolic
Which of the following statements is true regarding the pharmacologic management of
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A) beta blockers are strictly prohibited as they may decrease left ventricular filling
pressures
B) calcium channel blockers can be used only when there is no obstruction present
C) Antihistamines are prohibited in these patients
D) Diuretics may be considered for patients with fluid overload, but use with caution if
there is evidence of obstruction
E) a and d
F) b and d correct answers F) b and d
Which of the following statements are true regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A) primarily a right ventricular disease
