Calhoun Community College: NUR 611 Exam 2 Kahoot | Complete Questions and Answers | 100% All correct updated Fall 2025/26.

NUR 611 | Exam 2 Kahoot Questions & Answers 2025. Musculoskeletal Kahoot: (25) 1. During a 2.5 yo well child check, the patient has enlarged calves and has difficulty rising from sitting. What lab should you order? a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Phosphorus d. Creatine kinase 2. A positive McMurray Test indicates what? a. ACL teat b. MCL sprain c. LCL sprain d. Meniscal Tear 3. A painful “pop” in the ankle with immediate pain and inability to walk usually is indicative of what? a. Ankle sprain b. Achilles tendon rupture c. Anterior tibial tendinopathy d. Peroneal tendinopathy 4. The most common cause of heel pain is a. Plantar Fasciitis b. Friberg’s Disease c. Sesmoid Fracture d. Morton’s Neuroma 5. Risk factors for Plantar Fasciitis include a. Obesity b. High arch c. Excessive running d. All of the above 6. What disorder presents with the inability to fully extend the tip of the finger? a. Swann Neck deformity b. Boutonniere deformity c. Trigger finger d. Mallet finger 7. What is the mechanism of action for a boxer’s fracture? a. Hitting a hard object with a clenched hand b. Falling out on a stretched hand c. Overuse d. All of the above 8. What is the initial recommended treatment for Osteoarthritis? a. NSAIDS b. Opioids c. Steroids d. Refer for surgery 9. What type of pain do patients typically localize with the C sign? a. Posterior hip pain b. Anterior hip painc. Lateral hip pain d. Low back pain 10. What test is used to screen for scoliosis? a. Trendelenburg b. Drawer test c. Adam’s Sign d. Lachman’s sign 11. What disorder is aseptic or avascular necrosis of the femoral head? a. Osgood Schlatter b. LCP (Legg-Calve-Perthes) c. Genu Varum d. SCFE (Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis) 12. What is the most common pediatric sports injury? a. Sesmoid fracture b. Ankle sprain c. Ankle fracture d. Bursitis 13. To diagnose chronic low back pain, low back pain must be present for what length of time? a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks 14. What is a red flag on PE in a patient who presents with low back pain? a. Perianal or perineal sensory loss b. Major motor weakness c. Fever d. All of the above 15. On PE in a patient presenting with low back pain, you note motor weakness on plantar flexion. What is the affected nerve root? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1 16. A patient presents with numbness, tingling, and pain radiating into the left upper extremity with accompanying motor weakness. What is your diagnosis? a. Cervical Radiculopathy b. Muscle strain c. Spondylosis d. Myalgia 17. The Hawkin’s test evaluates for what? a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome b. Adhesive Capsulitis c. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis d. Rotator Cuff injury/impingement 18. What disorder is characterized by pain with wrist flexion and pronation? a. Lateral Epicondylitis b. Medial Epicondylitis c. Osteoarthritis d. Bursitis19. What injury results from a fall on an outstretched arm? a. Ulnar fracture b. Radial head fracture c. Sesmoid fracture d. Olecranon fracture 20. Positive Tinel’s sign indicates which disorder? a. Cervical radiculopathy b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome c. Cervical Spondylitis d. Scaphoid Fracture 21. Tenderness to palpation over the distal radius and a positive Finkelstein’s test indicate what? a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome b. Radial fracture c. Radial head fracture d. De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis 22. History of a fall on an outstretched hand and PE findings of pain and swelling in the snuffbox indicate what? a. Ulnar Fracture b. Boutonniere deformity c. Scaphoid fracture d. Radial Fracture 23. Early morning stiffness that improves in 30-60 minutes usually indicates what? a. Pes anserine bursitis b. RA c. Medial plica syndrome d. OA 24. L-Spine films can be delayed for how long if the pain is nonspecific with no “red flags?” a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 4-8 weeks d. 8-12 weeks 25. What disorder is characterized by overuse of the extensor tendons in the forearm leading to tendinosis? a. Cubital tunnel syndrome b. Olecranon Bursitis c. Medial epicondylitis d. Lateral epicondylitis Mental Health Kahoot: (35) 1. What is the incidence of mental health disorders in the US? a. 1 in 10 have a diagnosable MD b. 1 in 5 c. 1 in 3 d. 1 in 7 2. What defines and classifies mental disorders to improve diagnoses, treatment, and research? a. DSM 5 3. Which of the following are DDX for MDD? a. Thyroid Disorders b. Bipolar Disorder c. Anemiad. All of the above 4. To diagnose depression, the patient must have had symptoms for at least how long? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 24 weeks 5. What drug class is recommended 1st line as the treatment for depression? a. SSRI b. SNRI c. TCA d. MAOI 6. What percentage of the population is affected by GAD? a. 2-3% b. 5-8% c. 10-30% d. 30-50% 7. Excessive worry or fear about events or activities that occur more days than not characterizes what? a. Panic Disorder b. GAD c. Phobia d. SAD 8. The prevalence of any anxiety disorder was higher for females than males? a. True b. False 9. Repetitive, intrusive thoughts are? a. Phobias b. Compulsions c. Panic d. Obsessions 10. Physical and mental ritualized acts are? a. Delusions b. Obsessions c. Compulsions d. Hallucinations 11. Exposure to a terrifying, life-threatening trauma is a risk factor for which MD? a. ODD b. OCD c. Panic Disorder d. PTSD 12. Benzodiazepines are the recommended first-line therapy for PTSD. a. True b. False 13. What disorder is characterized by episodes of sustained, true mania, along with depressive episodes? a. BPD 1 b. BPD 2 c. PD d. Schizophrenia 14. Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of BPD? a. Lithiumb. Stress reduction c. Psychotherapy d. All of the above 15. What MD is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganization, cognitive dysfunction, & reality impairments? a. Personality disorder b. BPD 2 c. Agoraphobia d. Schizophrenia 16. What is the typical age of onset of Schizophrenia? a. 8-10 b. 50-60 c. 30 d. 30 17. What pediatric disorder is characterized by social, language, & sensory problems, in addition to repetitive behaviors & fixated interests? a. ODD b. Conduct Disorder c. ASD d. Panic Disorder 18. When considering a dx of ASD, what is the responsibility of the NP? a. Early referral b. Early screening c. Assessment of developmental delays d. All of the above 19. Which of the following is a developmental red flag for ASD? a. Lack of social smile at 1 mo b. Lack of visual tracking at 2 mo c. Lack of babbling consonant sounds at 9 mo d. Failure to use single words at 12 mo 20. How early can a child be diagnosed with ADHD? a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 8 years 21. ADHD is more prevalent in girls. a. True b. False 22. According to the DSM 5, to diagnose ADHD, how long must symptoms be present? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 6 months d. 12 months 23. Which of the following is a subjective assessment tool used to diagnose ADHD a. Vanderbilt b. QB Test c. Quotient Test d. TOVA 24. Which class of medications used to treat ADHD improves focus?a. Stimulants b. Non-stimulants c. SSRI d. Alpha-agonists 25. Which of the following is a contraindication to stimulant use? a. Weight loss b. Migraine c. Cardiac Anomalies d. Insomnia 26. Which disorder has the highest mortality rate of all mental disorders? a. ADHD b. MDD c. Anorexia d. PTSD 27. According to the DSM-5 for Depression, the patient must have at least how many symptoms for 2 weeks? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 28. The USPSTF recommends the screening for depression beginning in what age group? a. 2-5 b. 6-11 c. 12-18 d. 20-30 29. What is the 2nd leading cause of death for ages 15-44 in the U.S.? a. Substance abuse b. MVA c. Suicide d. Depression 30. What depression screening tool is recommended for adolescents? a. PHQ-2 b. PHQ-9 Modified c. PHQ-9 d. PSC-17 31. What SSRI has a back box warning for suicide in adolescents? a. Citalopram (Celexa) b. Paroxetine (Paxil) *****Ask about this! - don’t all antidepressants have this BBW??? c. Escitalopram (Lexapro) d. Fluoxetine (Prozac) 32. In adolescents developing depression, 20-40% are bipolar. a. True b. False 33. What MD is characterized by the presence of cognitive, & positive & negative symptoms? a. DMDD b. Schizophrenia c. Conduct Disorder d. Personality Disorder 34. Schizophrenic patients are more likely to commit suicide. a. 2xb. 4x c. 5x d. 8x 35. The PHQ-2 includes the first 2 items of the PHQ-9 and is used to screen as a "first step" approach. a. True b. False