NR 507 EDAPT FINAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 2025
Type 1 diabetes - correct answer- Caused by destruction of
pancreatic beta cells
Which of the following best describes the primary
pathophysiological mechanism underlying the development of
type 2 diabetes?
a Hypersecretion of insulin by pancreatic beta cells
b Enhanced insulin sensitivity in skeletal muscle
c Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
d Hypersecretion of glucagon by pancreatic alpha cells - correct
answer- c
Hypo glycemia - correct answer- irritability, hunger, sweating
Hyperglycemia - correct answer- blurred vision, increased
thirst, frequent urination
increased risk factors for type 1 diabetes(case study) - correct
answer- Age 16, twin with type 1,
, 2 | Page
The nurse practitioner (NP) ordered a random plasma glucose,
and the result was 250 mg/dL. - correct answer- The np should
diagnose the client with diabetes
Who is most at risk for DM 2 - correct answer- A 50 year old,
BMI 30, sedentary
The nurse practitioner (NP) evaluates a client [INSERT
diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes] who presents with increased
thirst, frequent urination, and excessive hunger. The client's
plasma glucose is 240 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%.
Which of the following should the NP include in the client's plan
of care? Select all that apply.
a- Oral hypoglycemic agent
b- Oral glucose tolerance test
c-Insulin therapy
d- Continuous glucose monitoring
e- Lifestyle modifications - correct answer- a,c,d,e
Diabetic Ketoacidosis - correct answer- type 1, metabolic
acidosis, ketones