HESI PN Fundamentals Exit Exam
2024/2025 – Real Exam Questions with
Verified Correct Answers | NGN
Updated
Question 1
A practical nurse (PN) is assisting a client with ambulation using a walker. Which instruction is
most appropriate?
A. Place the walker directly in front of you and step forward.
B. Hold the walker with one hand and lean heavily on it.
C. Move the walker and both feet simultaneously.
D. Step into the walker and grip the sides tightly.
Correct Answer: A. Place the walker directly in front of you and step forward.
Rationale: Proper walker use involves placing it slightly ahead, gripping both handles, and
stepping forward while maintaining balance. Moving feet and walker together (C) risks falling.
One-hand use (B) reduces stability. Stepping into the walker (D) is incorrect technique.
Question 2
A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Offer thin liquids to promote swallowing.
B. Position the client upright during meals.
C. Provide large food portions to encourage eating.
D. Allow the client to lie flat after eating.
Correct Answer: B. Position the client upright during meals.
Rationale: Upright positioning (90 degrees) reduces aspiration risk by aiding gravity-assisted
swallowing. Thin liquids (A) increase aspiration risk; thickened liquids are safer. Large portions
(C) may overwhelm. Lying flat (D) post-meal increases reflux and aspiration.
Question 3
The PN is monitoring a client’s fluid intake and output. Which finding indicates dehydration?
A. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours.
B. Moist mucous membranes.
,C. Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg.
D. Strong peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: A. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours.
Rationale: Low urine output (<30 mL/hr or 240 mL/8 hr) suggests dehydration due to reduced
fluid volume. Moist membranes (B), normal BP (C), and strong pulses (D) indicate adequate
hydration.
Question 4
A client is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The PN should ensure:
A. The cannula is removed during meals.
B. Oxygen flow is turned off when the client ambulates.
C. The nasal prongs are clean and patent.
D. The client uses a humidifier only at night.
Correct Answer: C. The nasal prongs are clean and patent.
Rationale: Clean, patent prongs ensure effective oxygen delivery and prevent infection. Oxygen
should continue during meals (A) and ambulation (B). Humidifiers are used continuously (D) to
prevent mucosal drying.
Question 5
A PN is teaching a client about pressure injury prevention. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. "I should stay in one position to avoid discomfort."
B. "I will reposition myself every 2 hours."
C. "I should use a hot water bottle to warm my skin."
D. "Massaging bony areas will prevent sores."
Correct Answer: B. "I will reposition myself every 2 hours."
Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure and prevents skin breakdown.
Prolonged immobility (A) increases risk. Heat (C) can burn skin. Massaging bony areas (D) may
cause tissue damage.
Question 6
The PN is assisting a client with a new colostomy. Which observation requires immediate
action?
A. Stoma is pink and moist.
B. Output is liquid and brown.
, C. Stoma appears dark purple.
D. Skin around stoma is slightly red.
Correct Answer: C. Stoma appears dark purple.
Rationale: A dark purple stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis, requiring urgent intervention.
Pink, moist stoma (A) is normal. Liquid output (B) is expected initially. Mild redness (D) may be
irritation but is less urgent.
Question 7
A client with diabetes mellitus reports numbness in their feet. The PN should assess for:
A. Peripheral neuropathy.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Peripheral artery disease.
Correct Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy.
Rationale: Numbness in extremities is a hallmark of diabetic neuropathy due to nerve damage.
Hypoglycemia (B) causes sweating, shakiness. Hyperglycemia (C) causes polyuria, thirst. PAD
(D) may cause pain, not numbness primarily.
Question 8
The PN is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric tube. Which action is
essential?
A. Crush all medications to a fine powder.
B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after.
C. Administer without checking tube placement.
D. Mix medications with enteral feeding.
Correct Answer: B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after.
Rationale: Flushing ensures patency and prevents clogging. Not all medications can be crushed
(A). Placement must be verified (C). Mixing with feeding (D) can cause interactions or clogging.
Question 9
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the PN monitor?
A. INR.
B. aPTT.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin.
2024/2025 – Real Exam Questions with
Verified Correct Answers | NGN
Updated
Question 1
A practical nurse (PN) is assisting a client with ambulation using a walker. Which instruction is
most appropriate?
A. Place the walker directly in front of you and step forward.
B. Hold the walker with one hand and lean heavily on it.
C. Move the walker and both feet simultaneously.
D. Step into the walker and grip the sides tightly.
Correct Answer: A. Place the walker directly in front of you and step forward.
Rationale: Proper walker use involves placing it slightly ahead, gripping both handles, and
stepping forward while maintaining balance. Moving feet and walker together (C) risks falling.
One-hand use (B) reduces stability. Stepping into the walker (D) is incorrect technique.
Question 2
A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Offer thin liquids to promote swallowing.
B. Position the client upright during meals.
C. Provide large food portions to encourage eating.
D. Allow the client to lie flat after eating.
Correct Answer: B. Position the client upright during meals.
Rationale: Upright positioning (90 degrees) reduces aspiration risk by aiding gravity-assisted
swallowing. Thin liquids (A) increase aspiration risk; thickened liquids are safer. Large portions
(C) may overwhelm. Lying flat (D) post-meal increases reflux and aspiration.
Question 3
The PN is monitoring a client’s fluid intake and output. Which finding indicates dehydration?
A. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours.
B. Moist mucous membranes.
,C. Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg.
D. Strong peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: A. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours.
Rationale: Low urine output (<30 mL/hr or 240 mL/8 hr) suggests dehydration due to reduced
fluid volume. Moist membranes (B), normal BP (C), and strong pulses (D) indicate adequate
hydration.
Question 4
A client is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The PN should ensure:
A. The cannula is removed during meals.
B. Oxygen flow is turned off when the client ambulates.
C. The nasal prongs are clean and patent.
D. The client uses a humidifier only at night.
Correct Answer: C. The nasal prongs are clean and patent.
Rationale: Clean, patent prongs ensure effective oxygen delivery and prevent infection. Oxygen
should continue during meals (A) and ambulation (B). Humidifiers are used continuously (D) to
prevent mucosal drying.
Question 5
A PN is teaching a client about pressure injury prevention. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. "I should stay in one position to avoid discomfort."
B. "I will reposition myself every 2 hours."
C. "I should use a hot water bottle to warm my skin."
D. "Massaging bony areas will prevent sores."
Correct Answer: B. "I will reposition myself every 2 hours."
Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure and prevents skin breakdown.
Prolonged immobility (A) increases risk. Heat (C) can burn skin. Massaging bony areas (D) may
cause tissue damage.
Question 6
The PN is assisting a client with a new colostomy. Which observation requires immediate
action?
A. Stoma is pink and moist.
B. Output is liquid and brown.
, C. Stoma appears dark purple.
D. Skin around stoma is slightly red.
Correct Answer: C. Stoma appears dark purple.
Rationale: A dark purple stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis, requiring urgent intervention.
Pink, moist stoma (A) is normal. Liquid output (B) is expected initially. Mild redness (D) may be
irritation but is less urgent.
Question 7
A client with diabetes mellitus reports numbness in their feet. The PN should assess for:
A. Peripheral neuropathy.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Peripheral artery disease.
Correct Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy.
Rationale: Numbness in extremities is a hallmark of diabetic neuropathy due to nerve damage.
Hypoglycemia (B) causes sweating, shakiness. Hyperglycemia (C) causes polyuria, thirst. PAD
(D) may cause pain, not numbness primarily.
Question 8
The PN is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric tube. Which action is
essential?
A. Crush all medications to a fine powder.
B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after.
C. Administer without checking tube placement.
D. Mix medications with enteral feeding.
Correct Answer: B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after.
Rationale: Flushing ensures patency and prevents clogging. Not all medications can be crushed
(A). Placement must be verified (C). Mixing with feeding (D) can cause interactions or clogging.
Question 9
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the PN monitor?
A. INR.
B. aPTT.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin.
