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Comprehensive Study Set!! CPC Certified Professional Coder- Practice Exam (100% Correct) Graded A+ |Verified|

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1 Comprehensive Study Set!! CPC Certified Professional Coder- Practice Exam (100% Correct) Graded A+ |Verified| What is the primary purpose of using ICD-10 codes in medical billing and how do they affect reimbursement rates? The primary purpose of using ICD-10 codes is to accurately describe patient diagnoses, conditions, and procedures for proper documentation and reimbursement. They impact reimbursement by ensuring that claims are processed with the correct coding, which determines the payment rates from insurance providers. How does the use of modifier 25 influence the payment for a procedure, and what criteria must be met for its use? Modifier 25 indicates that a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service was provided on the same day as another procedure. It affects payment by allowing additional reimbursement for the evaluation and management service when the criteria of a separate and distinct service are met. Explain the difference between a consultation and a referral in terms of coding and reimbursement. A consultation involves a physician providing advice or an opinion to another physician regarding a patient's condition, typically billed using specific consultation codes. A referral occurs when one healthcare provider directs a patient to another provider for treatment or further examination and is typically not separately reimbursed unless it leads to a specific service or procedure. What are the key requirements for billing for preventive care services under CPT codes, and how do these services impact patient care and billing? Preventive care services under CPT codes must meet certain criteria, including the absence of active treatment for any conditions during the visit. These services focus on early detection and prevention, which can impact patient care by reducing future health risks and can be billed separately, with specific reimbursement guidelines. How do you determine the appropriate ICD-10 diagnosis code for a patient's condition when multiple diagnoses are present, and what is the impact on claim processing? The appropriate ICD-10 diagnosis code should be the one that is most related to the primary reason for the patient’s visit or treatment. When multiple diagnoses are present, the main diagnosis should be selected first, and any 2 secondary diagnoses can be listed. Accurate coding impacts claim processing by ensuring the claim is aligned with the services provided, thus avoiding denials or delays in reimbursement. Explain the use of HCPCS Level II codes in medical billing and provide an example of when they are necessary. HCPCS Level II codes are used for reporting non-physician services, such as ambulance services, durable medical equipment, and supplies. These codes are necessary when billing for services that are not captured under CPT codes, such as a wheelchair or oxygen supply, and ensure reimbursement for these specialized items. Describe the role of documentation in medical coding and billing and its relationship to the accuracy of claims processing. Documentation is essential in medical coding and billing to support the accuracy of the codes reported for services provided. Accurate, detailed documentation ensures that the codes used reflect the actual care delivered, reducing the likelihood of claim denials and ensuring correct reimbursement. What is the significance of the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) edits in medical billing, and how do they influence coding decisions? The NCCI edits are designed to prevent improper coding by identifying combinations of codes that are not likely to be billed together. These edits influence coding decisions by helping coders understand which codes should not be reported together and by preventing errors that could lead to claim denials or reduced reimbursement. How do you handle bundled codes in medical billing, and what is their effect on reimbursement? Bundled codes represent a group of services that are typically provided together as part of a single procedure or treatment. They are used in billing to avoid overcharging for services that are often performed in conjunction with others. The effect on reimbursement is that only one payment is made for the bundled service, rather than for each individual component of the procedure. What steps should a medical coder take to ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations while coding and billing? A medical coder should ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations by protecting patient privacy, using secure coding systems, and adhering to confidentiality agreements. This includes properly handling personal health information (PHI) and ensuring it is only shared with authorized individuals or entities. How does the use of E/M codes impact the accuracy of medical billing, and what factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate code? E/M codes impact billing by determining the level of reimbursement based on the complexity and time spent on the evaluation and management of a patient's condition. When selecting the appropriate code, factors such as the patient's history, the 3 examination conducted, and the decision-making complexity should be considered to ensure accurate billing. What is the role of a coding auditor in the medical billing process, and how does their work ensure the accuracy of claims? A coding auditor reviews medical records and coding practices to ensure that the codes assigned are accurate and comply with healthcare regulations. Their work ensures that claims are submitted correctly, reducing the risk of fraud, overpayment, or underpayment, and promoting compliance with industry standards. Explain the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding, and how do these coding distinctions affect reimbursement? Inpatient coding refers to coding for patients who are admitted to a hospital, while outpatient coding is for services provided to patients who do not require an overnight stay. These distinctions affect reimbursement as inpatient services generally have a higher reimbursement rate due to the extended care required, while outpatient services are reimbursed based on the specific procedures and treatments provided. What is the importance of the Physician Quality Reporting System (PQRS) in medical billing, and how do physicians benefit from participating? The Physician Quality Reporting System (PQRS) is a program that encourages healthcare providers to report quality measures for the services they provide. Physicians benefit by receiving a financial incentive for reporting the data, which can improve their reimbursement rates and ensure they meet federal requirements for quality care. What is the role of medical coding in the determination of insurance claim payments, and how does the use of modifiers impact this process? Medical coding plays a critical role in determining insurance claim payments by ensuring that the correct codes are used to represent the services provided. The use of modifiers impacts this process by indicating that certain services were altered in some way, allowing for accurate adjustments to the payment based on the specific circumstances. How do you properly assign a code for a patient who presents with a chief complaint and a history of chronic conditions? When assigning a code for a patient with a chief complaint and a history of chronic conditions, the coder should prioritize the chief complaint as the primary diagnosis. Secondary codes should be assigned to reflect the chronic conditions, but only if they are relevant to the current encounter and treatment. What is the purpose of the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS), and how does it affect reimbursement for services provided by healthcare professionals? The Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS) establishes the payment rates for services provided by healthcare professionals under 4 Medicare. It affects reimbursement by setting the maximum allowable payment for each procedure or service, influencing how much a provider is paid for the care they deliver to Medicare beneficiaries. Describe the use of global periods in medical coding and how they influence the billing of follow-up services. Global periods refer to the time frame during which follow-up services related to a surgical procedure are included in the reimbursement for the surgery. They influence billing by ensuring that only certain follow-up services, like wound care or routine post-operative visits, are bundled into the surgery payment, reducing the need for separate billing. What is the role of the Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) in the billing process, and how do they assist in claims processing? The Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) is responsible for processing Medicare claims and ensuring compliance with federal regulations. They assist in claims processing by reviewing submitted claims, determining eligibility, and providing guidance to healthcare providers on the correct coding and billing practices for reimbursement. How do you determine if a service is covered under a patient's insurance policy, and what steps should be taken if a claim is denied? To determine if a service is covered under a patient's insurance policy, the healthcare provider must check the patient’s policy details, including the plan’s coverage guidelines and any exclusions. If a claim is denied, the provider should review the denial reason, appeal the decision if appropriate, and provide additional documentation or clarification to support the claim. What are the best practices for ensuring accurate and timely coding in a busy medical practice? Best practices for accurate and timely coding include maintaining organized patient records, staying current with coding updates and changes, ensuring proper documentation for all services provided, and using coding software to streamline the process. Regular training and audits also help to prevent errors and ensure compliance with coding standards. How do modifiers 59 and 51 differ in medical coding, and what is their role in claims processing? Modifier 59 is used to indicate that a procedure or service was distinct or independent from other services provided, while modifier 51 indicates that multiple procedures were performed during the same session. Their role in claims processing is to help adjust payments based on the complexity and quantity of procedures, ensuring that each service is reimbursed appropriately without duplication. Explain the difference between a surgical procedure and a non-surgical procedure in terms of coding and billing practices. Surgical procedures involve an incision or other invasive actions performed to treat a condition, while non-surgical procedures are typically less invasive, such as diagnostic tests or therapeutic treatments. In coding and billing, surgical procedures are often assigned higher reimbursement rates due to their complexity, while non-surgical procedures are reimbursed based on the services rendered. Which ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a 20-year-old patient presenting with symptoms of a severe headache, vomiting, stiff neck, and fever, suspected to have bacterial meningitis? G03.9 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a 50-year-old female diagnosed with impending menopause and symptoms of insomnia and upset stomach? G47.00, K30 Which ICD-10-CM code is used for an initial encounter of a closed fracture of the right wrist? S62.101A What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for pain in both the left and right ears? H92.03 What is the ICD-10-CM code for pneumonia due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? J15.212 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a Pancoast's tumor in the left lung, when the patient is admitted for chemotherapy? Z51.11, C34.12 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a patient receiving an erythropoietin (EPO) injection for anemia due to Stage 3 chronic kidney disease? N18.30, D63.1 Which scenario does NOT require documentation for a cause-and-effect relationship to be coded? Hypertension and chronic kidney disease 5 6 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a four-year history of eating disorders, with significant weight loss, resulting in a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa? F50.01 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for chronic pain due to a fall resulting in a spinal injury, treated with a neurostimulator for pain control? G89.21, M54.50 What is the ICD-10-CM code for a cataract of the left eye, requiring phacoemulsification? H25.12 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a patient with impacted cerumen in both ears? H61.23 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for Laennec's cirrhosis associated with long-term alcohol dependency during a liver transplant? K70.30, F10.20 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a follow-up visit regarding stable atrial fibrillation and therapeutic drug monitoring for anticoagulants? I48.91, Z79.01, Z51.81 What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for a 85-year-old woman with memory issues, visual impairments, and shoulder pain? F03.90, M25.511, I11.9, E11.59 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for coronary artery disease (CAD), hyperlipidemia, and personal history of smoking, for a patient receiving Lipitor samples? I25.10, E78.5, Z87.891, Z79.899 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for splenic abscesses and multiple intra-abdominal abscesses due to HIV, AIDS, and hepatitis C, with a splenectomy? B20, D73.3, K65.1, B19.20 What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for a patient with left breast adenocarcinoma, estrogen receptor positive, and neoplasm-related pain? C50.922, G89.3, M54.2, Z17.0, Z79.810 What is the ICD-10-CM code for postoperative anemia due to acute blood loss during surgery? D62 What ICD-10-CM code is used for the first episode of an acute myocardial infarction? I21 A patient returns to the provider for an injection to relieve low back pain from a car accident. What ICD 10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a.M54.50, G89.11 b.M54.50 c.G89.11, M54.50 d.G89.21, M54.50 b.M54.50 (pain is not described as acute or chronic, no code G89 is reported) A patient has a history of MRSA. She has just been diagnosed with pneumonia due to possible staphylococcus aureus. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a.J18.9, B95.62 b.J18.9 c.J18.9, Z86.14 d.Z86.14, B95.62 infection) c.J18.9, Z86.14 (personal history of Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus 7 What ICD-10-CM code is reported for a patient who is a habitual abuser of cannabis? a.F12.10 b.F12.129 c.F12.159 d.F12.121 a.F12.10 (Cannabis abuse, uncomplicated) A patient presents to a clinic with palpitations, weight loss, bulging eyes, and extreme nervousness. The tests ordered come back positive for Graves' disease. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a.E05.00, R00.2, R63.4, H57.89, R45.0 b.E05.01 c.E05.00 d.R00.2, R63.4, H57.89, R45.0, E05.01 crisis or storm) c.E05.00 (thyrotoxicosis with diffuse goiter w/o thyrotoxic An HIV positive patient was admitted with skin lesions on the chest and back. Biopsies were taken, and the pathologic diagnosis was HIV related Kaposi's sarcoma. Leukoplakia of the lips and splenomegaly were also noted on physical examination. Discharge diagnoses: (1) HIV infection, (2) Kaposi's sarcoma, back and chest, (3) leukoplakia (4) splenomegaly. What ICD-10-CM codes should be reported? a.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1 b.R16.1, C46.0, R16.1, Z21 c.Z21, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1 d.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1, Z21 a.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1 The patient has a history of unstable angina, hypertension, and chronic systolic heart failure. He is seen in the ED after prolonged chest pain that was not relieved by medication. Cardiac enzymes are elevated, and EKG shows anterior infarct. A decision was made to perform a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography. Left heart catheterization was performed in order to perform a left ventriculogram. He tolerated the procedure well and will be discharged. His final diagnosis is chronic systolic heart failure and hypertension. The two conditions are unrelated. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a.I50.22, I10 b.I11.0, I50.22 8 c.I11.0 d.I11.0, I10 a.I50.22, I10(essential (primary) hypertension) A patient with amyloidosis being treated for glomerulonephritis. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.N08, E85.4 b.N08, E85.3 c.E85.3, N08 d.E85.4, N08 disease) d.E85.4(organ-limited amyloidosis), N08 (glomerulonephritis- following code after Four years post hepatic transplant, the patient is recently diagnosed with combined hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma of the liver. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.C80.2, C22.0 b.C80.2, C22.0, C22.1, Z94.4 c.T86.49, C80.2, C22.0, C22.1, Z94.4 d.T86.49, C80.2, C22.0 d.T86.49 (transplant complication), C80.2, C22.0 no need to report Z94.4( liver transplant status) A 45-year-old-male patient developed an ulcer on his upper back. He has had diabetes for several years and is on insulin. The provider determines that the ulcer is due to his diabetes. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.E11.622, L98.429, Z79.4 b.E11.622, Z79.4 c.E11.622, L98.429 d.E11.9, L98.429, Z79.4 a.E11.622, L98.429, Z79.4 A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 b.G30.0, F02.80 9 c.F02.80, G30.0, F29, R41.3 d.F02.80, G30.0 b.G30.0 (code first), F02.80 A patient with hypertension presents to the outpatient hospital radiology department for an ultrasound due to a suspected suspicious mass. The patient's provider performed an ACTH and a 24-hour urinary free cortisol and short suppression test confirming the diagnosis of Cushing's disease. The radiology report indicated a 5.5 cm right adrenal mass that appeared well circumscribed and rounded. The final diagnosis indicated Cushing's disease secondary to a right adrenal tumor. The hypertension is due to the Cushing's syndrome. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.C74.91, E24.9, I15.2 b.D49.7, E24.9, I15.2 c.C74.91, E24.9, I10 d.D49.7, I15.2 b.D49.7, E24.9, I15.2 It is not malignant, so dont code C74.91 Mrs. Johnson is here today to receive an intercostal nerve block to mitigate the debilitating pain of her malignancy. Her cancer has metastasized to her bones in her thoracic spine. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.C79.51, G89.3, M54.6, C80.1 b.G89.3, C79.51, C80.1 c.M54.6, C79.51, C80.1 d.C79.51, G89.3, C80.1 b.G89.3, C79.51, C80.1 No pain mentioned - no report M54.6 What ICD-10-CM code is used for the first episode of an acute myocardial infarction? b. I21.9 A PT is treated with medication for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The pt had a pathologic fracture one year ago and the physician is following her condition every three months. M81.0: Age-related osteoporosis without current pathological fracture Z87.310: Personal history of healed osteoporosis fracture 10 M80 is reported. also Osteoporosis with current pathological fracture at the time of an encounter identify the site of the fracture. A pt in end stage renal disease is admitted to undergo dialysis. The pt is prepared and fitted for a peritoneal dialysis catheter and dialysis is performed in the outpatient hospital dialysis center. Z49.02: enc for fitting and adjustment of peritoneal dialysis catheter N18.6: End stage renal disease Rose presents today for the result s of her ultrasound. She was complaining of painful menstrual cycles that had her bedridden (nam liet giuong), along with pelvic pain at various intervals. The results of her ultrasound indicate tha Rose has endometriosis of the ovaries. The decision is made to try continuous birth control pills and pain medication. N80.1: Endometriosis of ovary/ ovaries A woman at 16 weeks 2/7 days of her pregnancy presents to her OBGYN for hemorrhoids Hemorrhoids in pregnancy, 2nd trimester Z3A.16: 16 weeks of gestation in pregnancy O22.42: A pt who is HIV positive is in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. Her pregnancy is progressing well w/o complications. She is at 26 weeks 0 days. O98.712: Human immunodeficiency (HIV) disease complication pregnancy 2nd trimester Z21: positive NOS Z3A.26: 26 weeks gestation of pregnancy Abuse in pregnancy 09A.4: Sexual abuse 09A.5: Psychological abuse 09A.3: Physical abuse Notes: abuse codes are always sequenced first, followed by injury code 39 y/o G5P2 LMP 4/17 presents with vaginal bleeding. She has had miscarriage x 2. Assessment/Plan: 39 y/o G5P2 at approximately 6 wk per LMP |1| presents with vaginal spotting. 1. Threatened miscarriage in early pregnancy 2. UTI O20.0: Threatened/miscarriage 11 O23.4: Pregnancy/complicated by/infection/urinary (tract) Z3A.01: Pregnancy/weeks of gestation/less than 8 weeks Patient is currently pregnant at 12 weeks gestation |1|, confirmed by ultrasound, and had an OB evaluation last week. She reports she was called today and told her test for Chlamydia was positive. However, the office was about to close and the patient did not want to wait until tomorrow so she came to the ED tonight to get treatment. Impression and Plan: Pregnant - 12 weeks Chlamydia trachomatis |2| (sexually transmitted) |3| - Keep scheduled OB appointment next week. 1. The patient is 12 weeks gestation. 2. the patient has chlamydia. Chlamydia is sexually transmitted (venereal disease) ._____________________________________________________________ What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? transmitted NEC - O98.311 (first trimester) O98.31-. Pregnancy/complicated by/infection/sexually A56.8: Infection/Chlamydia, chlamydial/sexually transmitted NEC Z3A.12: Pregnancy/weeks of gestation/12 weeks (code last) Codes order when pt is seen for complications to pregnancy pregnancy/complicated by/infection/sexually transmitted O98.311) 2nd: Infection itself (ex: Infection/ Chlamydia A56.8) 3rd: code the trimester when it occurs (Z3A.12- 12 weeks) 1st: Complications (ex: A two-day old baby is suspected to be in withdrawal. The neonate's mother was an active cocaine user before the pregnancy. Tests show the baby has not been affected by the mother's past cocaine use Z05.8: Observation and evaluation of newborn for other specified suspected condition ruled out. A mother brings her child in for a checkup with her pediatrician. She has nonmosaic trisomy 21 (Down syndrom) Q90.0 Trisomy 21, nonmosaicism (Trisomy/21/meiotic nondisjunction) 12 A patient presents to his family physician with symptoms of nausea and vomitting. He has no other symptoms. The physician examines the patient and prescribes medication to help with the condition R11.2: Nausea with vomiting, unspecified There is no definitive diagnoses - report the signs and symptoms. A pt is seen by a cardiologist with chest pain and shortness of breath on exertion. The physician documents a diagnosis of bradycardia R00.1: Bradycardia, unspecified Sign/symptoms are related to the condition and would not require an additional diagnosis The patient presents with chest pain in the right anterior chest |1|. The pain started 1 day ago and is constant. It is moderate and stabbing. Exacerbating factors consist of movement, breathing, coughing palpation. Risk factors consist of EtOH abuse |2|, the patient drinks at least 1 liter of Vodka daily. The patient also has shortness of breath. R07.89, R06.02, F10.129 Symptoms and signs are acceptable for reporting when a definitive diagnosis has not been established -Pain/chest/wall (anterior) R07.89 -Short, shortening, shortness/breath R06.02. -Abuse/alcohol/with/intoxication F10.129 The patient is 67-year-old male who presents with a 5-6 week history of progressive confusion. The majority of the history is obtained from the patient's wife as the patient is somewhat confused and has poor short-term memory. Per the patient's wife he has been having headaches intermittently in his bilateral temporal area over the past week. His left eye has appeared mildly drooped over the past 2-3 days and he has been somewhat unsteady on his feet through he has not fallen. The patient has approximate 7 pound unintentional weight loss over the past month |1|. He denies any fevers, chills, shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations or recent illnesses. The patient saw his primary care physician for these symptoms and underwent an MRI of the brain yesterday which showed a brain mass concerning for glioblastoma. The patient was admitted today for further workup of this. He denies headache presently, and per his wi G93.89, R63.4 ****Mass/specified organ NEC - see Disease, by site. The reason we looked for the subentry, specified organ NEC, is because there is not a subentry for Mass/brain. Look for Disease/brain/specified NEC G93.89 13 The patient also has confusion and headaches, but these are not coded because these are symptoms that are associated with a brain mass. Weight loss is not a symptom that is associated with a brain mass and can be reported. Loss/weight (abnormal) (cause unknown) R63.4 While playing tennis in a tournament at the Clay Court Country Club, a male player sprained his right wrist and was treated in a hospital emergency department close to the courts. S63.510A: Unspecified sprain of right wrist, initial encounter Y93.73: Tennis Y92.312: Tennis court A pt not wearing a seatbelt was involved in an automobile accident, hit the windshield, and was treated in the emergency room for a laceration to the scalp. scalp. Coding for Traumatic Fractures S01.01XA: Laceration without foreign body of A fracture not indicated as open/ closed - coded to closed A fracture not indicated as displaced/ not displaced - coded as displaced. A pt underwent surgery for an open burst fracture of the first lumbar vertabra which became unstable. S32.012B: Unstable burst fracture of first lumbar vertebra, initial encounter. Burns and Corrosions Burn codes are for thermal burns that come from heat source like fire or hot appliance (except sunburn) and burns resulting from electricity and readiation Corrosions are burns due to chemicals. T31: Burns that extend body surface involved. ***use "rule of nine" to estimate the body surface involved T32: Corrosions that extend body surface involved, when the site of the burn is not specified or when there is a need for additional data. 14 A fireman suffered a 10%, total body surface area(TBSA) burns battling a house fire. Second degree burns of the neck and 6% of his burns are third-degree burns of the scalp and right forearm. He was in the house containing the fire when the burns occurred. He was taken to the hospital emergency department for treatment. T20.35XA: Burn of third degree of scalp; initial encounter T22.311A: Burn of third degree of right forearm, initial encounter T20.27XA: Burn of second degree of neck, initial encounter T31.10: Burns involving 10-19% of body surface with 0% to 9% third degree burns X00.0XXA: Exposure to flames in uncontrolled fire in building or structure, initial encounter Y92.019: Unspecified place in single family residence house as the place of occurrence as the external cause A pt took an dose of penicillin that was prescribed correctly resulting in projectile vomitting R11.12: Projectile vomiting T36.0X5A: Adverse effect of penicillin, initial encounter Underdosing - Assign the code from T36-T50 - Codes for underdosing should never be assigned as the principal/ first listed diagnosis. Toxic Effects - T51 - T65 - Harmful substance is ingested or comes in contact with a person Abuse, Neglect, Maltreatment - Sequence first the appropriate code from T74- or T76-, followed by any accompanying mental health or injury code - code as suspected if it is documented as suspected - If stated as abuse or neglect, it is coded as confirmed. T86 Transplant complication Rejection of transplanted organs T86.1 - Kidney transplant complication (failure/reject) 15 - should NOT be assigned for POST kidney transplant pt who has chronic kidney (CKD) External cause codes/ place of occurrence of the external cause - Y92 is for place of occurrence (no 7th characters) - Never be a principal code Whiel alpine skiing in Utah, the pt fell and suffered a fracture of the right femur. Unspecified fracture of right femur, initial enc V00.321A: Snow-ski accident S72.91XA: Y92.39: Other specified sports and athletic area as the place of occurrence of the external cause Y93.23: Activity, snow (alpine) (downhill) skiing, snow boarding, sledding, tobogganing and snow tubing Y99.8: Other external cause status Y93 - Activity code - Secondary code - External cause codes to identify the activity that causes injury - Used only once External cause code orders: 2. Terrorism 3. Cataclysmic events 4. Transport accidents 1. Child/ adult abuse (Y07) The patient presents to the ED with right wrist pain. Just prior to arrival, the patient fell at home and has had a constant moderate pain and swelling since the fall. Exacerbation factors consist of movement palpation. The patient's dominant hand is the right hand. The patient stepped on a lid on the floor, falling onto outstretched right hand. She complains of right wrist pain. She is not anticoagulated, did not striker her head, and denies other complaint or injury. Radiology Results: Minimally displaced fracture involving the distal radial meta-epiphysis extending to the lateral margin of the articular surface for nondisplaced ulnar styloid fracture. 16 Impression and Plan: Closed fracture of the wrist Key words: The right wrist is injured. Injury is the result of a fall. The injury occurred at home. Injury details. The patient has a displaced fracture of the distal radial meta-epiphysis. |6| The patient also has a nondisplaced ulnar styloid fracture. Codes: S52.591A (Fracture, traumatic/radius/ lower end/specified, S52.59. Right wrist, 1, A is reported to indicate the initial encounter of a closed fracture.) S52.614A (Fracture/ ulna/lower end/styloid process/nondisplaced. sixth character 4 is reported to indicate the nondisplaced right wrist and seventh character A is reported to indicate the initial encounter of a closed fracture.) W18.31XA (External Cause of Injuries Index for Fall, falling (accidental)/on same level/due to/stepping on an object. X is placed in the sixth character position. Seventh character A is appended to indicate the initial encounter.) Y92.009 (Place of occurrence/residence/ home) According to the patient's mother, the patient attempted suicide yesterday by taking 17-18 500 mg of acetaminophen. She is experiencing situational problems including her parents are divorcing, she is f ighting with her boyfriend and her best friend moved away. She has attempted suicide previously by cutting her wrists. She currently has a fever, stomach pain, and diarrhea. Clinical impression: Suicide attempt. The patient is cleared medically for psychiatric referral. Codes: T39.1X2A, R50.2, R10.9, K52.1, Z91.5 T39.1X2: ICD-10-CM Table of Drugs and Chemicals for Acetaminophen and use the code from Poisoning, Intentional self-harm column 17 Fever/drug-induced (R50.2) and Diarrhea/drug-induced (K52.1). R10.9: Pain/abdominal History/personal (of)/suicide attempt Z91.5 Z20 Z23 Contact/ Exposure to communicable diseases Inoculations (truyen dich) or vaccinations A 6mo old child came for her routine checkup. The PT is a very acxtive healthy child. During the encounter the physician determined the pt needed the suggested vaccinations routine child health examination without abnormal findings Z23: Enc for immunizations Z16 Z17 Z18 Z21 Z28.3 Z66 Z68 Resistance to antimicrobial (khang khuan) drugs Estrogen receptor status Retained foreign body fragments HIV positive Underimmunization status Do not resuscitate (hồi sức) status Body Mass Index (BMI) Z00.129: Enc for 18 A healthy 33 years old male pt was examined by his family physician during a routine preventive exam. The pt has no specific problems but is HIV positive w/o any other symptoms Z00.00: Enc for general adult medical examination w/o abnormal findings Z21: Asymptomatic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) injection status Screening - testing disease so early treatment can be provided - may be a first- listed code if visit's reason is screening. A 25- year0 old female who delivered a healthy seven-pound baby girl six weeks ago is seen by her OB physician in routine follow-up. The PT is doing fine and is released from care and will begin seeing her family physician for any further treatment. Z39.2: enc for routine postpatum follow-up A pt who is in her third trimester of pregnancy visits a pediatrician to discuss the upcoming delivery and care of her child after delivery. Z76.81: Expectant mother pre-birth pediatrician vist. A patient was prescribed an anti-depressant. She forgot she had taken her pills for the day and took another pill by accident. She is now complaining of dizziness and excessive sweating. Select the diagnosis codes in the correct sequence. A) R42, R61, T43.201A B) R61, R42, T43.202A C) T43.201A, F45.8, R61 D) T43.201A, R42, R61 D) T43.201A, R42, R61 A male patient was a passenger in an automobile involved in a serious collision with another automobile. He sustained a closed fracture of the coronoid process of the jaw and an open left shaft fracture, Type 1, of the radius with an open Type 1 shaft fracture of the left ulna. What ICD-10-CM coding is reported? a. S52.302B, S52.292B, V43.62XA b. S52.302A, S52.202A, S02.630A, V43.92XA c. 19 S52.302B, S52.292B, S02.630B, V43.32XA d. S52.302B, S52.202B, S02.630A, V43.62XA D. S52.302B, S52.202B, S02.630A, V43.62XA A code is reported for each fracture. The radius and ulna fracture is open, which makes it the most severe injury; therefore, it is reported first. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Fracture, traumatic/radius/shaft S52.30- Verification in Tabular List indicates for the 6th character 2 for left radius and B for the 7th character for initial encounter for open Type 1 fracture, S52.302B. Next look for Fracture, traumatic/ ulna (shaft) S52.20-. 6th character 2 is for the left radius and B for the 7th character for initial encounter for open Type I fracture, S52.202B. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Fracture, traumatic/jaw (bone) (lower) - see Fracture, mandible. Look for Fracture, traumatic/mandible (lower jaw (bone))/coronoid process S02.63. In the Tabular List, 6th character 0 is reported for unspecified side and an A for the 7th character for initial encounter for a closed fracture, S02.630A. The patient was a passenger in a car that collided with another car. Look in the External Cause of Injuries Index for Accident/car - see Accident/transport, car occupant. Look for Accident/transport (involving injury to) car occupant/passenger/collision (with)/car(traffic) V43.62-. Add placeholder X for the 6th character and A for the 7th character for initial encounter. There are no other circumstances known about the collision, so no other external cause codes are reported. *** 7th character B is not in the book What would be considered an adverse effect a. Wound infection after surgery b. hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery c. shortness of breath when running d. rash developing when taking penicillin d. rash developing when taking penicillin What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails? a.Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue b.Chapter 13: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue 20 c.Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System d.Chapter 16: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal Period Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue What does the abbreviation CKD stand for? a.Chronic Kidney Disease b.Congenital Kidney Disorder c.Chronic Keratoderma d.Chronic Kidney Dysfunction a.Chronic Kidney Disease a.Chapter 12: Diseases of the The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a.N18.4, N18.6 b.N18.6, N18.5 c.N18.5 d.N18.6 d.N18.6 (N18.6:End stage renal disease, N18.5:stage 5) However, when both a stage of CKD and ESRD are documented, you assign only code N18.6. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. The patient is seen for an initial replacement of a leaking dialysis catheter. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a.T82.43XA b.T85.611A c.T82.41XB d.Z49.02 a.T82.43XA (catheter is a tube inserted into your bladder) Patient is in the facility today for a screening colonoscopy. During the procedure, a polyp is found and removed with a hot biopsy technique. How would this be reported? a.K63.5 21 b.Z12.11, K63.5 c.Z12.11 d.K63.5, Z12.11 b.Z12.11, K63.5 (Z12.11: screening, K63.5: polyp of colon) A pregnant woman in her 40 th week has gestational diabetes which is controlled by diet. What ICD-10 CM code(s) is/are reported? b.O24.410, Z3A.40 O24.410: Gestational diabetes mellitus in pregnancy, diet controlled Z3A.40: 40 weeks gestation of pregnancy A patient was admitted three weeks following a normal vaginal delivery with a postpartum breast abscess. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? O91.12 (Abscess of breast associated with puerperium) A patient is admitted to surgery to treat an open fracture to the shaft of the right humerus and a simple closed fracture of the left tibia following a side-by-side ATV accident. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.S42.301B, S82.202A, V86.99XA (A: closed fracture, B: open fracture) a.S42.301B, S82.202A, V86.99XA Patient presents with no menses and positive pregnancy test but an ultrasound reveals no uterine contents. An embryo has implanted on the left ovary and this is treated with laparoscopic oophorectomy. What ICD-10-CM code is reported for this procedure? O00.202 A 70-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of left knee pain with weight bearing activities. She is also developing pain at rest. She denies any recent injury. There is pain with stair climbing and start up pain. AP, lateral and sunrise views of the left knee are ordered and interpreted. The diagnosis is left knee pain secondary to underlying primary degenerative arthritis. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? M17.12 A patient is seen in the nursing home for dizziness and a healed stage II pressure ulcer is also noted. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? R42 22 A patient has benign prostatic hyperplasia with urinary retention. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? N40.1, R33.8 What ICD-10-CM codes are reported on the maternal record for a delivery of triplets that are all liveborn at 32 weeks of pregnancy? O30.103, Z37.51, Z 3A.32 A 47-year-old male was treated in the ED after being involved in a fight at a local pub. The patient sustained two lacerations, one to the left cheek and one to the left forearm. Abrasions were also on the left cheek. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? S01.412A, S51.812A, Y04.0XXA, Y92.29 A patient is dependent on a respiratory ventilator and has a tracheostomy in need of revision due to redundant scar tissue formation surrounding the site at the skin of the neck. Under general anesthesia and establishing the airway to maintain ventilation, the scar tissue is resected and then repair is accomplished using skin flap rotation from the adjacent tissue of the neck. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? J95.09, L90.5, Z99.11 A child is seen in a hospital based pediatric clinic for active treatment of 10% first and second degree burns to the left calf area and 5% third degree burns on her right hand. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? T23.301A, T24.232A A 14-year-old male patient was injured while skateboarding. The injuries included a displaced transverse fracture of the right femur shaft with multiple significant abrasions of the right thigh. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? S72.321A, V00.138A, Y93.51 A patient visits the ED for ringing in the ears, nausea, vomiting and drowsiness. During the history taking, the provider learns the patient has been taking 2 aspirins every hour for the last three days. After examination and performing blood tests the provider diagnoses the patient with aspirin poisoning. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? T39.011A, H93.13, R11.2, R40.0 The patient has vaginitis three days after she was discharged from the hospital where she had a vaginal delivery of a healthy baby girl. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? O86.13 A 43-year-old female presents to the provider for a diabetic ulcer of the right ankle. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? E11.622, L97.319 23 A patient is prescribed anticonvulsant medication for her seizures. She returns to her doctor three days later with nausea and rash from taking the anticonvulsant medication. The provider notes that this is a drug reaction to an anticonvulsant and changes the medication. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? L27.0, R11.0, T42.75XA A 12-month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles rubella. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? Z23 Newborn twin girls were delivered in the hospital via cesarean section at 27 weeks, weighing 850 grams for twin A and 900 grams for twin B. Both were diagnosed with extreme immaturity. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for both twins? Z38.31, P07.03, P07.26 Category I CPT codes - over 7000 service codes -5 digit numerical codes - reviewed and updated annually -mandatory to report for services and reimbursement Category I CPT code set 2. Surgery () 3. Radiology () 1. Anesthesiology- gây tê(00100-01999, ) 4. Pathology and Laboratory (, 0001U- 0254U) 5. Medicine (, , 0001A - 0042A) CPT coding basics the edits. - 0 indicates a CCM (correct coding modifier) is not allowed and will not bypass - 1: a CCM is allowed and will bypass the edits. - 9 indicates the use of modifiers is not specified. RBRVS Resource-based Relative Value Scale - It is calculated based on: 24 + physician work value + practice expense + Professional liability insurance CPT code for Wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toe nail CPT for Extensive excision of nasal polyps (viêm xoang) 11765 30115 CPT code for Partial laparoscopic (nội soi ổ bụng) colectomy (cắt bỏ) w/ anastomosis and coloproctology (đại tràng) 44207 (under Intestine p.368 Laparoscopy 44207) CPT code fo MRN (Magnetic resonance imagining) performed the brain first without contrast and then with contrast 70553 (Radiology p.528 head and neck 70553) CCM Correct Coding Modifier Which one of the CPT® codes listed below would modifier 50 be appended to for a bilateral procedure? (multiple choice) 37650 (ligation of femoral vein, for bilateral procedure, report 37650 with modifier 50) CPT® Category III codes are reported to indicate which type of service or procedure? Emerging CPT Category II measurements - used voluntarily to physicians to report quality patient performance What association maintains and publishes CPT® coding guidelines, codes, and descriptions? New and AMA Which modifiers are appended to E/M codes to report payable services within the global package? 24, 25, 57 25 90 What is the postoperative period included in the surgical global package for major surgery? days Which set of HCPCS Level II codes are used to report injected drugs? How often can HCPCS temporary Codes be updated? Quarterly J codes In which option below is it appropriate to append HCPCS Level II modifiers to CPT® procedure codes? When specificity is required for eyelids, fingers, toes, and coronary arteries Which HCPCS Level II modifier should you append for a new wheelchair purchase? a. GM b. HC c. NR d. NU d. NU What agency maintains and distributes HCPCS Level II codes? What publications does the AMA copyright and maintain? What is the correct code for a radical maxillary sinusotomy? intranasal radial without removal of antrochoanal polyps) CMS CPT® codenbook and CPT® Assistant 31030 (sinusotomy, maxillary; The Global Surgical Package applies to services performed in what setting? a.Hospitals b.Ambulatory Surgical Centers c.Physician's offices d.All of the above d.All of the above 26 How are ambulance modifiers used? They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the full description for code 11001? Debridement of extensive eczematous or infected skin; each additional 10% of the body surface, or part thereof (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure) Notes: exclude the portion after the semicolon in the main code. What temporary HCPCS Level II codes are required for use by Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) Hospitals? C codes What codes are national codes assigned by CMS to identify professional healthcare procedures and services that may not have assigned CPT® codes. G codes What codes identify mental health services for state Medicaid agencies mandated by state law to establish separate codes for those services. H codes What codes are used by Durable Medical Equipment Medicare Administrative Contractors (DME MACs). DME MACs develop new K codes when existing national codes for supplies and certain product categories do not include the codes needed to implement a DME MAC medical review policy? codes K What codes identify services that would not be given a CPT® code or are not identified by national Level II HCPCS codes but are needed by CMS to facilitate claims processing. Such services include drugs, biologicals, and other types of medical equipment or services. Q codes What codes meet various business needs of commercial and Medicaid agency health plans. HCPCS S codes report drugs, services, and supplies for which national codes do not exist but are needed to implement policies, programs, or support claims processing. They are not payable by Medicare. codes If a CPT® code and a HCPCS Level II code exist for the same service, which one does Medicare prefer to report? HCPCS Level II code S 27 A patient is seen in the physician's office for a 2,400,000 U injection of Bicillin L-A. What code represents this drug and the units given? J0561 x 24 (HCPCS book) What type of CPT® code is "modifier 51 exempt" even though there is no modifier 51 exempt symbol next to it? Add-on Codes What is the correct code for a total ankle arthroplasty with an implant? 27702 What is the correct code for the performance measure for moderate rheumatoid arthritis disease activity? (multiple choice) 3471F Under Category II CPT® Category III codes reimburse at what level? payer Reimbursement, if any, is determined by the (Per AMA, no relative value units, RVUs, are assigned to these codes. PMT for these services or procedures is based on the policies of payers) What type of print indicates new additions and revisions in the CPT® codebook each year? print Green How many days does it take CMS to implement HCPCS Level II Temporary Codes that have been reported as added, changed or deleted? 90 What is the correct CPT® code for a complicated nephrolithotomy on a patient with a congenital kidney abnormality? 50070 A patient is in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. A meniscectomy is performed. What is the correct code used to report for the anesthesia services? 01400 Anesthesia/Knee. Not 29880-LT 28 When procedures are "mandated" by third party payers, what modifier would you use? 32 What hernia repair codes can be reported with add-on code 49568? Where is the starting point for selective catheter placement for the vascular families in Appendix L in the CPT® codebook? Aorta What is the correct CPT® code for the excision of a benign lesion on the scalp with an excised diameter of 2.3 cm (this includes margins)? 11423 ARF acute renal failure; acute respiratory failure Cabinet fall on PT Pyloroplasty in CPT W20.8XXA: other cause of trike by thrown, projected or falling object 43800 (surgery opening lower part of stomach) Deep biopsy of soft tissue of the ankle (biopsy- remove) A 39-year-old female patient was seen in her physician's office with a soft movable lump in her left breast. The patient's mother was diagnosed with breast carcinoma in her early 70s . The physician used a 22-gauge needle for an FNA analysis of the breast. Fluid was aspirated and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The cytology report indicated no malignancy. The physician informed the patient that she had f ibrocystic breast disease. ICD-10-CM:N60.12, Z80.3 Furuncle (boil) CPT®:10021 infected hair and has a small collection of fluid under the skin Carbuncle - a cluster of connected furuncles (boils) 29 - likely occur in hairy area Abscess Collection of pus underneath the skin - contain bacteria and debris Pilonidal Cyst debris (abscess). Hematoma Seroma A cyst near or on the natal cleft of the buttocks that often contains hair and skin a solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues. A pocket of clear serous fluid that sometimes develops in the body after surgery. Chief Complaint: Sebaceous Cyst HPI: Abscess of right axilla is not much improved - it is draining purulent fluid. No fever, NV. He is on Bactrim. Skin Exam: 2-3 cm abscess with central opening and purulent drainage R axilla. There is likely an underlying sebaceous cyst in this spot. There is something streaking both inferiorly and superiorly of approx. 1-2 inches. Procedure: Right axilla prepped with betadine and infiltrated 2 ml of Xylocaine with epi 2%. Using an 11 blade a 1 cm incision is made and a fair amount of purulent drainage is gently extracted. Culture is obtained. Wound is cleaned and dressed. Pt. tolerated the procedure well without incident or complication. Assessment: Cellulitis of axilla, right. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported? Code: 10060 ICD-10-CM Code: L03.111 CPT® 30 Rationales: CPT®: Look in the CPT Index for Incision and Drainage/Abscess/Skin and you are directed to . There is no mention of complication and there are no drains left in place. This is a simple procedure. ICD-10-CM: The patient has cellulitis of the right axilla. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Cellulitis/axilla L03.11-. In the Tabular List, sixth character 1 is selected for the right axilla. FBR Foreign body removal Subcutaneous tissue incision and drainage including foreign bodies below the dermis layer of skin (under skin) occurs when an incision is made in the skin and a substance is removed, Foreign body removal codes: 10120- simple 10121- complex Puncture a small hole made by a sharp object Procedure: Foreign body removal. Patient Understanding: The patient states understanding of the procedure being performed. Patient Consent: The patient's understanding of the procedure matches consent given. Location: L thigh. Anesthesia: Local infiltration with bupivacaine 0.5% with epinephrine. Anesthetic total: 10 ml. Complexity: Complex—after dissection and exploration 1 object was recovered with forcep. Wound closed with 5-0 prolene. 31 Post-procedure Assessment: Left thigh puncture wound with subcutaneous foreign body removal, initial encounter. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported? CPT: 10121 ICD-10: S71.142A Integumentary Sytem skin, hair, nails, glands - Skin performs functions: protection from injury, fluid loss, microorganisms, temperature regulation, f luid balance and sensation Skin layers (outer to inner) stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale CPT code for Incision and drainage of complex or multiple abscesses 10061 Constitutional: Well-developed and well-nourished. VS as charted in the nursing assessment Integumentary: The patient does have a pilonidal cyst that is obviously draining with foul-smelling fluid. The skin surrounding the cyst is red and inflamed. Procedure: The area of pilonidal cyst was sterilely prepped with Betadine. 2% lidocaine was then used to anesthetize the area around which there was some drainage occurring. A #11 scalpel blade was used to expand this area to approximately 1.5 cm in size. Mosquito forceps were then used to exudate more purulent material from this larger opening. Copious amounts of purulent drainage were exuded. This was then packed with 1/2 inch iodoform gauze. The patient tolerated this well. Final Diagnosis: Pilonidal cyst with abscess What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? ICD-10: L50.01 ICD-10 Morel lesion (hematoma, contusion) Debridement codes CPT: 10081 When it is Morel, look up Contusion - S80.11XA based on depth, body surface, condition and some codes 4 location - if single wound, report deepest level of tissue removed 32 - multiple wounds, report sum of the surface area for wounds at same depth Debridement- depth Subcutaneous Tissue: Muscle and Fascia: 11043- 11046 Bone: VAC (VAcuum Assisisted Closure) with codes VAC is reported with codes 97605- 97608 and can be reported The parenthetical note under Active Wound Care indicates that the non-surgical debridement codes CANNOT be used with surgical debridement codes Skin includes Epidermis: -outer layer of cells covering the body - major barrier against infection - regulates the amount of water released from the skin - thinner on eyelids and thicker on palms and soles Dermis: lower layers of skin, include: - blood vessels - lymph vessels - hair follicles - sweat glands -sebum Paring or Cutting codes L84: Calluses, corns ICD-10: L85.2: Palmar and Plantar keratosis L85.8: Keratosis pilaris 33 L82.-: Seborrheic keratosis L57.0: Senile keratosis CPT: 11055-11057 Integumentary system biopsy codes Nonpigmented Nevus - Benign and slow growing D22 Seborrheic Keratosis keratin cysts. Warts - Skin-colored mole, generally associated with hair growth. - Benign lesion in older patients caused by epidermal proliferation and Skin growth caused by HIV virus B07.- Rhinophyma also known as a bulbous nose, usually occurs in older men. overgrowth of tissues of the nose and is associated with advanced rosacea. L71.1 Molluscum Skin infection caused by molluscum virus - lesions and bumps Molluscum contagiosum- B08.1 Angiofibroma Small reddish-brown or flesh-colored papules (0.1-0.3cm) on side of nose or cheeks 34 D10.6 Cauterization t issue/seal wound Papilloma A63.0 the use of heat, cold, electric current, or caustic chemicals to destroy abnormal Small wart-like growth or mucous membrane, benign Removal of Skim Tags code - CPT - Using sharp method Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Condylomata genital warts - HIV Premalignant Lesions 11300-11313 (attention to size and location) Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) in situ Hutchinson's Melanotic Freckle Actinic Keratosis (AK) squamous cell carcinoma (skin) -red scaly patch Hutchinson's Melanotic Freckle - malignant tumor of the squamous epithelial cells in the epidermis - age 70-80 - can be present fro 5-10 years before turning malignant 35 Actinic Keratosis (AK) -Scaly, crusty lesions - Sun expose - face, scalp, lips, hands Destruction of Premalignant Lesions - "premalignant" - 17000- 17004 - performed using laser, curettement, cryosyrgery, chemosurgery, electrosurgery - Use Modifier 22 for complication destruction - 17000: one lesion - 17000+ 17003 for 2 to 14 lesions - 17004 for 15 or more lesions Destruction of Benign Lesions - "benign lesions" - - code based on number of lesions treated - 17110: up to 14 lesions - 17111: =15 lesions Destruction of Cutaneous Vascular Proliferative Lesions - Depends on TOTAL size treated - sq cm - - Performed for telangiectasia, cherry angioma (senile angioma), and telangiectasia associated with rosacea. - Exp: The pt presents for destruction of senile angioma of the right lower arm, because of constant bruising and bleeding when bumped. There are angiomas of approximately 2sq cm x 1, 3 sq cm x3, and 5sq cm x1 on the right and two angiomas on the left forearm, each 3cm. = Report code 17107 bc the total sq cm involved is 22sq cm. 36 Chemical cauterization of granulation tissue - 17250 - " proud flesh", "sinus or fistula" - must be reported with removal/excisional codes for the same lesion Destruction, Malignnant Lesions, any method - trunk, arms, legs, scalp, neck, hands, feet, genitalia - destruction can be performed using any method - - Use modifier 51 to additional procedure codes performed during the same session. Skin Cancer - Benign: nevus, lipoma - Malignant: carcinoma (C44), melanoma (C43) Excision Procedure - Location -Pathology - whether the lesion is benign or malignant - Size: diameter of lesions (in total) - Closure BCC Basal Cell Carcinoma - malignant lesion () Nails related coded Modifier T5 (right great toe procedure performed) Types of Open Wound Puncture Bite RSTL Laceration Relaxed Skin Tension Lines- minimal tension and will heal on a narrow line 37 Extirpation complete removal of pulp tissue Vermilion bright red (lip) Post Procedural wound closures Z48.1: after the removal of a neoplasm Z48 Z48.3: Aftercare following surgery for neoplasm Basal and squamous cell carcinoma, require skin graft Ulcers Codes reported based on the cause of ulcer: -Diabetes: E08-E13, addition code under L97 -Pressure (bed sores/ decubitus ulcers): L89 Skin Replacement Surgical Preparation - Flap -Substitute skin graft - Autograft - Negative pressure wound therapy Delay of flap/ Sectioning of flap Tubed/Pedicle Flaps C44 38 Intermediate transfer of any pedicle 15650 Implantation of biologic implant for soft tissue reinforcement Pressure Ulcer Sunburns L55.1: 2nd degree L55.2: 3rd degree L89 L55.0: 1st degree sunburn L55.9: unspecified sunburn TBSA Total body surface area T31 and T32: identifies the % of burns T20-T28: requires 7th character (A, D, S) CPT codes for burns treatment Mohs Micrographic Surgery Prefixes for breast CPT Mamm/o: Breast Lobo: Lobe Galact/o: Milk Lacto/: Milk Breast Mass/ Lump solid non-cancerous tumor -formed due to fibrocystic changes or fibroadenoma Hematoma (breast) +15777 a solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues. 39 Seroma A pocket of yellow fluid (serum) that sometimes develops in the body after surgery. Breast incisions codes 10140: incision and drainage : needle aspiration 10160: puncture aspiration of abscess, hematoma, bulla/ cyst 19000, +19001: puncture aspiration of breast 19020: mastotomy/ drainage of abscess, deep 19030: injection procedure Breast calcifications Tiny calcium - common, esp after menopause - Benign, non-cancerous - small specs - if microcalcifications are clustered together - sign of malignancy Breast Mass - either benign or malignant - found on self exam, physician, mamography - no pain or painful - sometimes comes with nipple discharge Procedure for breast Biopsy - Stereotactic -Ultrasound- guided ICM-10 for infiltrating ductal carcinoma mastectomy (breast cancer) codes Carcinoma Infiltrating ductular 40 Radical Mastectomy - used for breast cancer - codes: Breast Reconstruction necessary the surgical removal of an entire breast and many of the surrounding tissues - do not reimbursed for cosmetic by insurance unless it's medically - normally for cosmetic reshaping of breasts - CPT codes: CASE 1 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Rapidly enlarging suspicious lesion on patient's right side of forehead. (Indications for surgery.) POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Rapidly enlarging suspicious lesion on patient's right side of forehead.OPERATION PERFORMED: Wide local excision with intermediate closure of the right side of forehead. (An excision with intermediate closure was performed.)INDICATIONS: The patient is a 78-year old white male who noticed within the last month or so, a rapidly enlarging suspicious lesion on the right side of his forehead. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was placed in the supine position on the table, and was given no sedation. The area of his right forehead (Location is the right forehead.) was draped and prepped with Betadine paint in normal sterile fashion. The area to be excised was on the right side of the patient's mid forehead. This lesion had a maximum diameter of 1.1 cm (Greatest cli CPT: 12052 11442-51 CASE 2 ICD: L85.8 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Basal cell carcinoma (postoperative and preoperative diagnosis) POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same OPERATION Mohs micrographic surgery (Mohs surgery is performed) 41 Indications: The patient has a biopsy proven basal cell carcinoma on the nasal tip (Location) measuring 8 x 7 mm.(Size) Due to its location, Mohs surgery is indicated. Mohs surgical procedure was explained including other therapeutic options, and the inherent risks of bleeding, scar formation, reaction to local anesthesia, cosmetic deformity, recurrence, infection, and nerve damage. Informed consent was obtained and the patient underwent fresh tissue Mohs surgery as follows. (Information was shared with the patient and the patient agreed.) STAGE I: (Mohs surgery is performed in stages, this report ind

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What is the primary purpose of using ICD-10 codes in medical billing and how do they affect
reimbursement rates? The primary purpose of using ICD-10 codes is to accurately describe
patient diagnoses, conditions, and procedures for proper documentation and reimbursement. They
impact reimbursement by ensuring that claims are processed with the correct coding, which determines
the payment rates from insurance providers.



How does the use of modifier 25 influence the payment for a procedure, and what criteria must be met
for its use? Modifier 25 indicates that a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and
management service was provided on the same day as another procedure. It affects payment by
allowing additional reimbursement for the evaluation and management service when the criteria of a
separate and distinct service are met.



Explain the difference between a consultation and a referral in terms of coding and reimbursement.
A consultation involves a physician providing advice or an opinion to another physician regarding
a patient's condition, typically billed using specific consultation codes. A referral occurs when one
healthcare provider directs a patient to another provider for treatment or further examination and is
typically not separately reimbursed unless it leads to a specific service or procedure.



What are the key requirements for billing for preventive care services under CPT codes, and how do
these services impact patient care and billing? Preventive care services under CPT codes must
meet certain criteria, including the absence of active treatment for any conditions during the visit. These
services focus on early detection and prevention, which can impact patient care by reducing future
health risks and can be billed separately, with specific reimbursement guidelines.



How do you determine the appropriate ICD-10 diagnosis code for a patient's condition when multiple
diagnoses are present, and what is the impact on claim processing? The appropriate ICD-10
diagnosis code should be the one that is most related to the primary reason for the patient’s visit or
treatment. When multiple diagnoses are present, the main diagnosis should be selected first, and any


1

,secondary diagnoses can be listed. Accurate coding impacts claim processing by ensuring the claim is
aligned with the services provided, thus avoiding denials or delays in reimbursement.



Explain the use of HCPCS Level II codes in medical billing and provide an example of when they are
necessary. HCPCS Level II codes are used for reporting non-physician services, such as ambulance
services, durable medical equipment, and supplies. These codes are necessary when billing for services
that are not captured under CPT codes, such as a wheelchair or oxygen supply, and ensure
reimbursement for these specialized items.



Describe the role of documentation in medical coding and billing and its relationship to the accuracy of
claims processing. Documentation is essential in medical coding and billing to support the
accuracy of the codes reported for services provided. Accurate, detailed documentation ensures that the
codes used reflect the actual care delivered, reducing the likelihood of claim denials and ensuring correct
reimbursement.



What is the significance of the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) edits in medical billing, and how
do they influence coding decisions? The NCCI edits are designed to prevent improper coding by
identifying combinations of codes that are not likely to be billed together. These edits influence coding
decisions by helping coders understand which codes should not be reported together and by preventing
errors that could lead to claim denials or reduced reimbursement.



How do you handle bundled codes in medical billing, and what is their effect on reimbursement?
Bundled codes represent a group of services that are typically provided together as part of a single
procedure or treatment. They are used in billing to avoid overcharging for services that are often
performed in conjunction with others. The effect on reimbursement is that only one payment is made
for the bundled service, rather than for each individual component of the procedure.



What steps should a medical coder take to ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations while coding and
billing? A medical coder should ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations by protecting patient
privacy, using secure coding systems, and adhering to confidentiality agreements. This includes properly
handling personal health information (PHI) and ensuring it is only shared with authorized individuals or
entities.



How does the use of E/M codes impact the accuracy of medical billing, and what factors should be
considered when selecting the appropriate code? E/M codes impact billing by determining the
level of reimbursement based on the complexity and time spent on the evaluation and management of a
patient's condition. When selecting the appropriate code, factors such as the patient's history, the

2

,examination conducted, and the decision-making complexity should be considered to ensure accurate
billing.



What is the role of a coding auditor in the medical billing process, and how does their work ensure the
accuracy of claims? A coding auditor reviews medical records and coding practices to ensure that
the codes assigned are accurate and comply with healthcare regulations. Their work ensures that claims
are submitted correctly, reducing the risk of fraud, overpayment, or underpayment, and promoting
compliance with industry standards.



Explain the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding, and how do these coding distinctions
affect reimbursement? Inpatient coding refers to coding for patients who are admitted to a
hospital, while outpatient coding is for services provided to patients who do not require an overnight
stay. These distinctions affect reimbursement as inpatient services generally have a higher
reimbursement rate due to the extended care required, while outpatient services are reimbursed based
on the specific procedures and treatments provided.



What is the importance of the Physician Quality Reporting System (PQRS) in medical billing, and how do
physicians benefit from participating? The Physician Quality Reporting System (PQRS) is a
program that encourages healthcare providers to report quality measures for the services they provide.
Physicians benefit by receiving a financial incentive for reporting the data, which can improve their
reimbursement rates and ensure they meet federal requirements for quality care.



What is the role of medical coding in the determination of insurance claim payments, and how does the
use of modifiers impact this process? Medical coding plays a critical role in determining insurance
claim payments by ensuring that the correct codes are used to represent the services provided. The use
of modifiers impacts this process by indicating that certain services were altered in some way, allowing
for accurate adjustments to the payment based on the specific circumstances.



How do you properly assign a code for a patient who presents with a chief complaint and a history of
chronic conditions? When assigning a code for a patient with a chief complaint and a history of
chronic conditions, the coder should prioritize the chief complaint as the primary diagnosis. Secondary
codes should be assigned to reflect the chronic conditions, but only if they are relevant to the current
encounter and treatment.



What is the purpose of the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS), and how does it affect
reimbursement for services provided by healthcare professionals? The Medicare Physician Fee
Schedule (MPFS) establishes the payment rates for services provided by healthcare professionals under

3

, Medicare. It affects reimbursement by setting the maximum allowable payment for each procedure or
service, influencing how much a provider is paid for the care they deliver to Medicare beneficiaries.



Describe the use of global periods in medical coding and how they influence the billing of follow-up
services. Global periods refer to the time frame during which follow-up services related to a
surgical procedure are included in the reimbursement for the surgery. They influence billing by ensuring
that only certain follow-up services, like wound care or routine post-operative visits, are bundled into the
surgery payment, reducing the need for separate billing.



What is the role of the Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) in the billing process, and how do they
assist in claims processing? The Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) is responsible for
processing Medicare claims and ensuring compliance with federal regulations. They assist in claims
processing by reviewing submitted claims, determining eligibility, and providing guidance to healthcare
providers on the correct coding and billing practices for reimbursement.



How do you determine if a service is covered under a patient's insurance policy, and what steps should
be taken if a claim is denied? To determine if a service is covered under a patient's insurance
policy, the healthcare provider must check the patient’s policy details, including the plan’s coverage
guidelines and any exclusions. If a claim is denied, the provider should review the denial reason, appeal
the decision if appropriate, and provide additional documentation or clarification to support the claim.



What are the best practices for ensuring accurate and timely coding in a busy medical practice?
Best practices for accurate and timely coding include maintaining organized patient records, staying
current with coding updates and changes, ensuring proper documentation for all services provided, and
using coding software to streamline the process. Regular training and audits also help to prevent errors
and ensure compliance with coding standards.



How do modifiers 59 and 51 differ in medical coding, and what is their role in claims processing?
Modifier 59 is used to indicate that a procedure or service was distinct or independent from other
services provided, while modifier 51 indicates that multiple procedures were performed during the same
session. Their role in claims processing is to help adjust payments based on the complexity and quantity
of procedures, ensuring that each service is reimbursed appropriately without duplication.



Explain the difference between a surgical procedure and a non-surgical procedure in terms of coding and
billing practices. Surgical procedures involve an incision or other invasive actions performed to
treat a condition, while non-surgical procedures are typically less invasive, such as diagnostic tests or
therapeutic treatments. In coding and billing, surgical procedures are often assigned higher

4

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