2025 HESI PN Exit Exam V2 (LPN Edition)
– Comprehensive Review Questions &
Answers with Rationales for Practical Nurses
| 100% Verified | Graded A+
This document provides 75 multiple-choice and Select All That Apply (SATA) questions with
verified answers and detailed rationales for the 2025 HESI PN Exit Exam V2, designed for
Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs). The questions align with the HESI framework, NGN formats,
and cover essential nursing topics to ensure comprehensive preparation for a high score. Answers
are in dark red.
HESI PN Exit Exam V2 Questions (1–75)
Comprehensive Nursing Content (20 Questions)
1. A client with pneumonia is admitted to the medical unit. Which intervention should
the LPN implement to prevent complications?
o A) Encourage energy conservation with complete bed rest
o B) Restrict PO and intravenous fluids
o C) Provide humidified oxygen per nasal cannula
o D) Encourage mobilization and ambulation
o Answer: D. Encourage mobilization and ambulation
o Rationale: Mobilization prevents complications like atelectasis and promotes
lung expansion. Bed rest may worsen pneumonia, fluid restriction is not indicated,
and humidified oxygen may not be prescribed.
2. The LPN is preparing to administer cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every 6 hours.
The vial is labeled “Cefazolin 1 gram,” and reconstitution instructions state, “Add 2
mL sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2 mL.” How
many milligrams are in each mL of solution? (Enter numeric value only)
o Answer: 500
o Rationale: 1 gram = 1000 mg. After reconstitution, 1000 mg is in 2 mL, so 1000
÷ 2 = 500 mg/mL.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes reports nausea and vomiting. Which action should the
LPN take first?
o A) Administer an antiemetic
o B) Check blood glucose levels
o C) Offer a small snack
, o D) Document the symptoms
o Answer: B. Check blood glucose levels
o Rationale: Nausea and vomiting can indicate hypo- or hyperglycemia, so
checking glucose levels guides further interventions.
4. A client with a new colostomy asks about dietary restrictions. Which food should
the LPN recommend avoiding?
o A) Steamed broccoli
o B) Baked chicken
o C) White rice
o D) Applesauce
o Answer: A. Steamed broccoli
o Rationale: Broccoli can cause gas and odor, which may affect colostomy output.
Other options are low-residue and appropriate.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which
finding should the LPN report immediately?
o A) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
o B) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
o C) Weight loss of 1 kg overnight
o D) Urine output of 1200 mL/day
o Answer: A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
o Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L),
increasing arrhythmia risk, which requires immediate reporting.
6. A client with a urinary catheter reports discomfort. Which action should the LPN
take first?
o A) Remove the catheter
o B) Check for kinks or blockages
o C) Administer pain medication
o D) Notify the provider
o Answer: B. Check for kinks or blockages
o Rationale: Discomfort may be due to catheter obstruction, which the LPN can
assess before escalating.
7. The LPN is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which task can be delegated
to a UAP?
o A) Checking tube placement
o B) Administering tube feedings
o C) Assisting with oral hygiene
o D) Assessing gastric residual
o Answer: C. Assisting with oral hygiene
o Rationale: Oral hygiene is within the UAP’s scope. Other tasks require LPN or
RN skills.
8. A client with hypertension is prescribed ramipril (Altace) 5 mg PO daily. Which
instruction should the LPN provide?
o A) Take the medication with grapefruit juice
o B) Monitor for a dry cough
o C) Expect weight gain
o D) Take it with a high-fat meal
, o Answer: B. Monitor for a dry cough
o Rationale: Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough as a side
effect, which should be monitored.
9. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which observation requires
immediate action?
o A) Client reports mild pain at the site
o B) Foot is pale and pulseless
o C) Client requests repositioning
o D) Traction weights are secure
o Answer: B. Foot is pale and pulseless
o Rationale: Pale, pulseless extremities indicate compromised circulation, requiring
immediate intervention.
10. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding
indicates the need to adjust oxygen?
o A) Oxygen saturation of 88%
o B) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
o C) Blood pressure of 120/76 mmHg
o D) Heart rate of 80 bpm
o Answer: A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
o Rationale: For COPD, target oxygen saturation is 88–92%. A saturation of 88%
may require adjustment after consulting the provider.
11. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with NPH insulin added. The
LPN notices the bag is labeled incorrectly. What should the LPN do?
o A) Hang the solution at the current rate
o B) Return the solution to the pharmacy
o C) Administer with new tubing
o D) Hold the solution until needed
o Answer: B. Return the solution to the pharmacy
o Rationale: Incorrect labeling poses a safety risk; returning to the pharmacy
ensures correct preparation.
12. A client with a pressure ulcer is receiving wound care. Which task can the LPN
delegate to a UAP?
o A) Assessing the wound’s depth
o B) Repositioning the client every 2 hours
o C) Applying a sterile dressing
o D) Administering pain medication
o Answer: B. Repositioning the client every 2 hours
o Rationale: Repositioning is within the UAP’s scope. Other tasks require LPN or
RN skills.
13. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg PO
three times daily. Which finding should the LPN report?
o A) Gingival hyperplasia
o B) Heart rate of 76 bpm
o C) Blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg
o D) Clear urine output
o Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
– Comprehensive Review Questions &
Answers with Rationales for Practical Nurses
| 100% Verified | Graded A+
This document provides 75 multiple-choice and Select All That Apply (SATA) questions with
verified answers and detailed rationales for the 2025 HESI PN Exit Exam V2, designed for
Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs). The questions align with the HESI framework, NGN formats,
and cover essential nursing topics to ensure comprehensive preparation for a high score. Answers
are in dark red.
HESI PN Exit Exam V2 Questions (1–75)
Comprehensive Nursing Content (20 Questions)
1. A client with pneumonia is admitted to the medical unit. Which intervention should
the LPN implement to prevent complications?
o A) Encourage energy conservation with complete bed rest
o B) Restrict PO and intravenous fluids
o C) Provide humidified oxygen per nasal cannula
o D) Encourage mobilization and ambulation
o Answer: D. Encourage mobilization and ambulation
o Rationale: Mobilization prevents complications like atelectasis and promotes
lung expansion. Bed rest may worsen pneumonia, fluid restriction is not indicated,
and humidified oxygen may not be prescribed.
2. The LPN is preparing to administer cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every 6 hours.
The vial is labeled “Cefazolin 1 gram,” and reconstitution instructions state, “Add 2
mL sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2 mL.” How
many milligrams are in each mL of solution? (Enter numeric value only)
o Answer: 500
o Rationale: 1 gram = 1000 mg. After reconstitution, 1000 mg is in 2 mL, so 1000
÷ 2 = 500 mg/mL.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes reports nausea and vomiting. Which action should the
LPN take first?
o A) Administer an antiemetic
o B) Check blood glucose levels
o C) Offer a small snack
, o D) Document the symptoms
o Answer: B. Check blood glucose levels
o Rationale: Nausea and vomiting can indicate hypo- or hyperglycemia, so
checking glucose levels guides further interventions.
4. A client with a new colostomy asks about dietary restrictions. Which food should
the LPN recommend avoiding?
o A) Steamed broccoli
o B) Baked chicken
o C) White rice
o D) Applesauce
o Answer: A. Steamed broccoli
o Rationale: Broccoli can cause gas and odor, which may affect colostomy output.
Other options are low-residue and appropriate.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which
finding should the LPN report immediately?
o A) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
o B) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
o C) Weight loss of 1 kg overnight
o D) Urine output of 1200 mL/day
o Answer: A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
o Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L),
increasing arrhythmia risk, which requires immediate reporting.
6. A client with a urinary catheter reports discomfort. Which action should the LPN
take first?
o A) Remove the catheter
o B) Check for kinks or blockages
o C) Administer pain medication
o D) Notify the provider
o Answer: B. Check for kinks or blockages
o Rationale: Discomfort may be due to catheter obstruction, which the LPN can
assess before escalating.
7. The LPN is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which task can be delegated
to a UAP?
o A) Checking tube placement
o B) Administering tube feedings
o C) Assisting with oral hygiene
o D) Assessing gastric residual
o Answer: C. Assisting with oral hygiene
o Rationale: Oral hygiene is within the UAP’s scope. Other tasks require LPN or
RN skills.
8. A client with hypertension is prescribed ramipril (Altace) 5 mg PO daily. Which
instruction should the LPN provide?
o A) Take the medication with grapefruit juice
o B) Monitor for a dry cough
o C) Expect weight gain
o D) Take it with a high-fat meal
, o Answer: B. Monitor for a dry cough
o Rationale: Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough as a side
effect, which should be monitored.
9. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which observation requires
immediate action?
o A) Client reports mild pain at the site
o B) Foot is pale and pulseless
o C) Client requests repositioning
o D) Traction weights are secure
o Answer: B. Foot is pale and pulseless
o Rationale: Pale, pulseless extremities indicate compromised circulation, requiring
immediate intervention.
10. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding
indicates the need to adjust oxygen?
o A) Oxygen saturation of 88%
o B) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
o C) Blood pressure of 120/76 mmHg
o D) Heart rate of 80 bpm
o Answer: A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
o Rationale: For COPD, target oxygen saturation is 88–92%. A saturation of 88%
may require adjustment after consulting the provider.
11. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with NPH insulin added. The
LPN notices the bag is labeled incorrectly. What should the LPN do?
o A) Hang the solution at the current rate
o B) Return the solution to the pharmacy
o C) Administer with new tubing
o D) Hold the solution until needed
o Answer: B. Return the solution to the pharmacy
o Rationale: Incorrect labeling poses a safety risk; returning to the pharmacy
ensures correct preparation.
12. A client with a pressure ulcer is receiving wound care. Which task can the LPN
delegate to a UAP?
o A) Assessing the wound’s depth
o B) Repositioning the client every 2 hours
o C) Applying a sterile dressing
o D) Administering pain medication
o Answer: B. Repositioning the client every 2 hours
o Rationale: Repositioning is within the UAP’s scope. Other tasks require LPN or
RN skills.
13. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg PO
three times daily. Which finding should the LPN report?
o A) Gingival hyperplasia
o B) Heart rate of 76 bpm
o C) Blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg
o D) Clear urine output
o Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
