Family Medicine Board Review
2025/2026 Exam Questions with 100%
Correct Answers | Latest Update
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He
has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An
examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise
unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association
2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate
medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
,B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and American College
of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, antihypertensive
treatment should be initiated. For the general non-African-American population,
monotherapy with an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium
channel blocker, or a thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial
management. It is also appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy
as an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an ACE
inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies have shown
that blood pressure control is achieved faster with the initiation of combination
therapy compared to monotherapy, without an increase in morbidity.
Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an appropriate choice in this patient. -
Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and potassium-sparing diuretics are not
recommended as initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
,During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two residents
on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines,
who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two laboratory-
confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit. Any resident
exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for influenza and not given
chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for residents of
other units unless there are two laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility
staff of the affected unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not
been vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is not
recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
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3
, A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate pelvic
pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral
contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate
cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative.
Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this
patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment should be
administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the results of the
nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for gonorrhea and Chlamydia are
returned. The clinical diagnosis is based on an at-risk woman presenting with
lower abdominal or pelvic pain, accompanied by cervical motion, uterine, or
2025/2026 Exam Questions with 100%
Correct Answers | Latest Update
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He
has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An
examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise
unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association
2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate
medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
,B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and American College
of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, antihypertensive
treatment should be initiated. For the general non-African-American population,
monotherapy with an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium
channel blocker, or a thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial
management. It is also appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy
as an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an ACE
inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies have shown
that blood pressure control is achieved faster with the initiation of combination
therapy compared to monotherapy, without an increase in morbidity.
Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an appropriate choice in this patient. -
Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and potassium-sparing diuretics are not
recommended as initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
,During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two residents
on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines,
who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two laboratory-
confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit. Any resident
exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for influenza and not given
chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for residents of
other units unless there are two laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility
staff of the affected unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not
been vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is not
recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
COPYRIGHT©NINJANERD 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025. COMPANY REGISTRATION NUMBER: 619652435. TERMS OF USE.
PRIVACY STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
3
, A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate pelvic
pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral
contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate
cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative.
Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this
patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment should be
administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the results of the
nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for gonorrhea and Chlamydia are
returned. The clinical diagnosis is based on an at-risk woman presenting with
lower abdominal or pelvic pain, accompanied by cervical motion, uterine, or
