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D115 Patho - OA Readiness Exam Questions With Correct Answers Complete Solution

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A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state? A) Coma B) Persistent vegetative state C) Minimally conscious D) Locked-in syndrome - CORRECT ANS - C) Minimally conscious When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious state Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? A) 13-15 B) 12-13 C) 9-12 D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANS - D) 3-8 The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses? A) Hallucinations B) Compulsions C) Obsessions Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. D) Delusions - CORRECT ANS - C) Obsessions

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A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?

A) Coma

B) Persistent vegetative state

C) Minimally conscious

D) Locked-in syndrome - CORRECT ANS - C) Minimally conscious

When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious state



Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI.
Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?

A) 13-15

B) 12-13

C) 9-12

D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANS - D) 3-8

The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.



Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?

A) Hallucinations

B) Compulsions

C) Obsessions

Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions
such as anxiety or disgust.

D) Delusions - CORRECT ANS - C) Obsessions

Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions
such as anxiety or disgust.

,During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the
FNP might observe what type of behavior?

A) An inflated sense of self

B) Constant relation to future events

C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned

Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.

D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - CORRECT ANS - C) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned

Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.



The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.

B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.

C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.

D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
CORRECT ANS - C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.

The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.



The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The mother
states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this
child has:

A) Acute otitis media

B) Acute otitis externa

C) Cholesteatoma

D) Chronic otitis media - CORRECT ANS - A) Acute otitis media

The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a recent
history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.

,The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized by
severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:

A) Retropharyngeal abscess

B) Epiglotitis

C) Peritonsillar cellulitis

D) Peritonsillar abscess - CORRECT ANS - D) Peritonsillar abscess

Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle
spasms, and a hot potato voice.



What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?

A) Maternal age

B) drug exposure during the first trimester?

C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein

D) history of previous still birth - CORRECT ANS - A) maternal age

The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35



The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:

A) Assess for the possibility of twins

B) Deterime the biliruben level

C) Perform genetic studies

D) Assess L/S ratio - CORRECT ANS - C) Perform genetic studies

This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome



In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?

A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?

B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.

C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.

, D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - CORRECT ANS - A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome

45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the X
chromosome in each cell.



The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly,
hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the following
genetic conditions?

A) Down Syndrome

B) Cri du chat

C) Charge syndrome

D) Duncan disease - CORRECT ANS - B) Cri du chat

The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental
retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-
spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.



When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:

A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is

B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.

C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.

D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - CORRECT ANS - A) Adaptive immunity is a
cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.

There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response, which is
carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B cells and
antibodies.



A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness, tremulousness,
palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a complete history and
physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism,
recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:

A) Thyroid cancer

B) Graves' disease

C) Pituitary adenoma

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